Amending Memorandum Circular No. 2003-009

June 14, 2005

NPC MEMORANDUM CIRCULAR NO. 2005-002

AMENDING MEMORANDUM CIRCULAR NO. 2003-009 ENTITLED "FURTHER AMENDING NAPOLCOM MEMORANDUM CIRCULAR NO. 92-015 PRESCRIBING A STANDARD PROCEDURE FOR THE RECRUITMENT, SELECTION AND APPOINTMENT OF PNP UNIFORMED PERSONNEL DATED NOVEMBER 26, 1992" AND OTHER RELATED ISSUANCES

WHEREAS, Republic Act No. 8551, entitled "An Act Providing for the Reform and Reorganization of the Philippine National Police and for Other Purposes, Amending Certain Provisions of R.A. No. 6975, An Act Establishing the Philippine National Police Under a Reorganized Department of the Interior and Local Government, and for Other Purposes," specifically Section 14 thereof, amended the minimum qualifications for appointment embodied in Section 30 of Republic Act No. 6975;

WHEREAS, the Commission issued Memorandum Circular No. 2003-009 amending Memorandum Circular No. 92-015 which is aimed to ensure high quality of personnel entering the police service and to strengthen the human resource capability of the PNP;

WHEREAS, there is a need to amend Memorandum Circular No. 2003-009 to address the problems which surfaced during its implementation and to make certain the recruitment, selection and appointment of the best and most qualified police applicants; IaDcTC

NOW THEREFORE, the Commission, pursuant to its constitutional mandate to administer and control the PNP, HAS RESOLVED TO AMEND, AS IT HEREBY AMENDS, Napolcom Memorandum Circular No. 2003-009, and other related issuances and accordingly prescribes the following revised guidelines in the recruitment, selection and appointment of Police Officer I in the PNP:

SECTION I. Objectives.—

A. Establish a system that is characterized by strict observance of the merit, fitness and PRINCIPLE OF EQUAL OPPORTUNITY in the recruitment, selection and appointment of PO1 in the PNP;

B. Ensure that all appointments are in accordance with existing laws, rules and regulations.

SECTION II. Policies.—

The following personnel policies on recruitment, selection and appointment are hereby established:

A. Recruitment of PNP Uniformed Personnel to the rank of Police Officer 1 (PO1 shall be BASED ON THE principle of merit and fitness and shall be open to all qualified INDIVIDUALS. aDSAEI

B. THE PNP SHALL RESERVE AT LEAST TEN PERCENT (10%) OF ITS ANNUAL RECRUITMENT QUOTA FOR WOMEN. iatdc2005

C. There shall be no discrimination on account of gender, religion, ethnic origin or political affiliation.

D. THE PNP SHALL PROGRAM THE ANNUAL RECRUITMENT QUOTA AT THE NATIONAL, REGIONAL, PROVINCIAL AND CITY/MUNICIPAL LEVELS SUBJECT TO APPROVAL BY THE COMMISSION.

E. IN ORDER TO HAVE A WIDER BASE FOR THE SELECTION PROCESS, THE PNP SCREENING COMMITTEE SHALL PROCESS APPLICANTS UP TO 150% OF THE APPROVED QUOTA IN ALL OFFICES.

F. No person shall be appointed as Police Officer I unless THE APPLICANT SATISFIES THE MINIMUM QUALIFICATIONS FOR APPOINTMENT AS PROVIDED FOR UNDER SECTION 14, R.A. NO. 8551.

G. Preference shall be accorded to the applicants who are residents of the city/municipality where the quota is allocated provided they meet the MINIMUM QUALIFICATION STANDARDS AND OFFICIALLY ENDORSED BY THE CITY/MUNICIPAL MAYOR IN ACCORDANCE WITH THE PROCEDURES SET IN THIS CIRCULAR.

H. The age, height and weight requirements for initial appointment in the PNP may be waived ONLY WHEN THE NUMBER OF QUALIFIED APPLICANTS. FALLS BELOW THE APPROVED QUOTA AFTER THE FINAL INTERVIEW AT THE NATIONAL/REGIONAL LEVEL.

The application of a member of an indigenous group for height waiver shall be processed regardless of whether or not the number of applicants falls below the annual quota: PROVIDED, THAT APPLICANTS GRANTED HEIGHT WAIVER BY VIRTUE OF MEMBERSHIP IN AN INDIGENOUS GROUP SHALL ONLY BE CONSIDERED FOR APPOINTMENT IN THE AREAS WHEREIN THEY ARE CONSIDERED INDIGENOUS BY THE NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR INDIGENOUS PEOPLES (NCIP) OR OFFICE ON MUSLIM AFFAIRS (OMA).

I. No appointment shall be issued by the PNP National Office or by any of the National Support Units unless the COMMISSION CERTIFIES THE PROPOSED APPOINTEES TO BE QUALIFIED FOR APPOINTMENT, while in the regional offices the PROPOSED APPOINTEES SHALL BE CERTIFIED by the Napolcom Regional Directors before issuance of appointment by the PNP Regional Director.

J. The Appointing Authority shall in no case issue a Special Order earlier than the date of THE ISSUANCE OF THE APPOINTMENT.

K. No appointee shall be entitled to payment of salary prior to the taking of his/her Oath of Office (Panunumpa sa Katungkulan) and assumption of duty.

L. The appointing authority shall be HELD RESPONSIBLE FOR THE STRICT IMPLEMENTATION OF THIS CIRCULAR.

SECTION III. General Qualifications and Standards.—

A. General Qualifications:

1. A citizen of the Philippines;

2. A person of good moral character;

3. Must have passed the psychiatric/psychological, drug and physical tests to be administered by the PNP or by any Napolcom accredited government hospital for the purpose of determining the appointee's physical and mental health;

4. Must possess a formal baccalaureate degree from a recognized learning institution;

5. Must be eligible in accordance with the standards set by the Commission;

6. Must not have been dishonorably discharged from military employment or dismissed for cause from any civilian position in the Government;

7. Must not have been convicted by final judgment of an offense or crime involving moral turpitude;

8. Must be at least one meter and sixty-two centimeters (1.62m) in height for male and one meter and fifty-seven centimeters (1.57m) for female;

9. Must weigh not more or less than five kilograms (5 kg) from the standard weight corresponding to his/her height, age and sex; and

10. Must not be less than twenty-one (21) nor more than thirty (30) years of age.

An applicant shall be considered to be 21 years of age on his/her 21st birth date and shall be considered more than thirty (30) years of age on his/her 31st birth date.

B. The appropriate eligibilities for Police Officer I are those acquired from the following:

1. PNP Entrance Examination

2. CSC Police Officer I/Police Officer (Second Level Eligibility — 1998 onwards)

3. R.A. No. 1080 (Bar and Board examinations)

4. P.D. No. 907 (Granting Civil Service Eligibility to College Honor Graduates)

SECTION IV. Procedural Guidelines.—

A. Pre-recruitment Activities

1. The PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management (DPRM) shall prepare and submit to the Chief, PNP the annual recruitment PROGRAM. Such annual recruitment PROGRAM shall indicate the quota allocation for cities and municipalities of the various provinces in each of the 17 regions as well as the National Support Units (NSUs).

THE DPRM SHALL PREPARE THE QUOTA ALLOCATION IN CONSULTATION/COORDINATION WITH THE PNP REGIONAL AND NSU DIRECTORS.

2. The allocation of quota at the city/municipal levels shall be based on a set of criteria, as follows:

a. police-to-population ratio

b. peace and order condition in the locality

c. actual demands of the service

d. class of city/municipality

The recruitment quota given to any of the NSUs shall be based on the actual demands of the functional area covered. cSTDIC

3. Within two (2) working days from receipt of the recruitment PROGRAM prepared by the DPRM, the Chief, PNP shall submit the same to the Commission which shall act on the same within five (5) working days.

4. Within two (2) working days, the Commission shall return the approved recruitment PROGRAM to the PNP and a copy of the same shall be furnished all Napolcom Regional Directors.

5. Within TWO (2) working days from receipt of the approved recruitment quota, the DPRM pursuant to R.A. No. 7041 (Publication Law) shall publish in at least three (3) national broadsheets the number of POIs to be recruited in each region/province/city/municipality, the requisite qualifications and eligibility to be met, the documents to be submitted and where to file the application and documentary requirements.

6. The DPRM shall disseminate within TWO (2) working days copies of the approved recruitment quota to all PNP Regional Directors who, in turn, shall provide within two (2) working days a copy to each of the Police Provincial Directors. THEREAFTER, THE PNP REGIONAL DIRECTORS SHALL ACTIVATE AND ORGANIZE THEIR RESPECTIVE SCREENING COMMITTEES.

THE PNP REGIONAL AND PROVINCIAL/CITY DIRECTORS ARE NOT AUTHORIZED TO ALTER THEIR APPROVED QUOTA.

7. The Police Provincial/CITY Directors shall, within five (5) working days from receipt of the copy, inform the City/Municipal Mayors of their recruitment quota, through their respective Chiefs of Police.

8. The Napolcom Regional Directors shall monitor whether or not the city/municipal mayors have been informed of their respective recruitment quota.

9. ALL PNP REGIONAL AND PROVINCIAL/CITY DIRECTORS SHALL UNDERTAKE INFORMATION DRIVES TO ATTRACT THE MOST NUMBER OF QUALIFIED APPLICANTS USING THE TRI-MEDIA.

10. CHIEFS OF POLICE SHALL, upon receipt of their recruitment quota, post a Notice of Recruitment at the City/Municipal Hall and in two (2) other conspicuous places.

The Notice of Recruitment shall include the following data for the information of prospective applicants:

a. quota for the city/municipal police station

b. VACANCIES ARE OPEN FOR BOTH MALE AND FEMALE APPLICANTS

c. general qualification standards

d. documentary requirements

e. where to submit the application papers and documents

f. deadline for submission

g. schedules of screening/evaluation

11. THERE SHALL BE ESTABLISHED PNP SCREENING COMMITTEES AT THE NATIONAL AND REGIONAL POLICE OFFICES THAT SHALL BE RESPONSIBLE FOR THE PROCESSING AND SELECTION OF THE MOST QUALIFIED APPLICANTS TO BE RECOMMENDED FOR APPOINTMENT.

B. Selection of the Most Qualified Applicants at City/Municipal Level

1. UPON RECEIPT OF THE RECRUITMENT QUOTA, THE MAYOR AS CHAIR OF THE LOCAL POC SHALL CREATE AN AD HOC BODY COMPOSED OF FOUR (4) MEMBERS, NAMELY:

a. VICE-MAYOR

b. DILG CLGOO/MLGOO

c. CITY DIRECTOR/CHIEF OF POLICE

d. POC MEMBER FROM THE ACADEME

THE CITY DIRECTOR/CHIEF OF POLICE SHALL SERVE AS THE SECRETARIAT FOR THIS ACTIVITY. HE SHALL PUBLISH THE LIST OF APPLICANTS IN PUBLIC PLACES AND LOCAL MEDIA, IF ANY, TO ENCOURAGE THE PUBLIC TO REPORT ANY INFORMATION RELATIVE TO THE WORTHINESS OF THE APPLICANT TO BECOME A LAW ENFORCER IN THEIR COMMUNITY. AaITCH

2. APPLICANTS SHALL SUBMIT TO THE CITY DIRECTOR/CHIEF OF POLICE THEIR APPLICATION FOLDERS CONTAINING THE FOLLOWING DOCUMENTS:

a. Duly accomplished CSC Form 212;

b. Birth Certificate AUTHENTICATED by the NSO;

c. Report of Rating of Eligibility AUTHENTICATED BY THE ISSUING AUTHORITY;

d. Two (2) pieces 2"x2" black and white picture indicating applicant's name;

e. Transcript of Scholastic Records and Diploma DULY AUTHENTICATED BY THE SCHOOL REGISTRAR;

f. Clearances from THE BARANGAY, LOCAL Police Station, RTC/MTC and NBI

g. MEDICAL CERTIFICATE ISSUED BY THE LOCAL HEALTH OFFICER

3. THE SECRETARIAT SHALL CONSOLIDATE AND SUBMIT ALL APPLICATION FOLDERS TO THE AD HOC BODY WHICH SHALL CONVENE TO CONDUCT AN INITIAL SCREENING AND PRELIMINARY INTERVIEW OF INDIVIDUAL APPLICANTS IN ORDER TO:

a. determine the COMPLETENESS of the documents required;

b. establish whether or not the applicant meets the age, height, weight, education and eligibility requirements;

c. DETERMINE HIS POTENTIAL AND WORTHINESS TO BE APPOINTED AS LAW ENFORCER; and

d. assess his/her personal appearance and conversational ability. cITCAa

4. The screening shall be completed within fifteen (15) WORKING days from commencement thereof. THE NAMES OF PRINCIPAL RECOMMENDEE(S) AND ALTERNATES, RANKED ACCORDING TO DEGREE OF QUALIFICATIONS AND COMPETENCE, SHALL BE SUBMITTED TO THE MAYOR WHO IN TURN ENDORSES TO THE PNP REGIONAL DIRECTOR,.COPY FURNISHED THE PNP PROVINCIAL DIRECTOR.

IN THE CASE OF HIGHLY URBANIZED CITIES (HUCs) THE LIST OF PRINCIPAL AND ALTERNATE RECOMMENDEES SHALL BE SUBMITTED DIRECTLY TO THE PNP REGIONAL DIRECTOR.

C. Selection by the PNP Regional Screening Committee

1. The PNP Regional Director shall endorse the list of qualified applicants, within three (3) days from receipt thereof, to the PNP Regional Screening Committee. The Regional Screening Committee is composed of the following:

2. THE REGIONAL PHRDD AS SECRETARIAT SHALL PERFORM THE FOLLOWING FUNCTIONS:

a. PREPARE CALENDAR OF ACTIVITIES OF THE SCREENING COMMITTEE/NOTICES OF MEETING

b. STRICTLY IMPLEMENT THE SEQUENTIAL STEPS OF THE SCREENING PROCESS BY ENDORSING TO THE NEXT STAGE ONLY THOSE WHO PASSED THE PRECEDING STAGE

c. DOCUMENT ALL ACTIVITIES OF ALL STAGES IN THE RECRUITMENT PROCESS

d. MAINTAIN FILES OF RESULTS OF ALL TESTS UNDERTAKEN BY THE APPLICANTS

e. PUBLISH THE RESULTS OF ALL THE TESTS, COPY FURNISHED THE CHAIRPERSON AND VICE CHAIRPERSON OF THE SCREENING COMMITTEE

f. MONITOR THE FILLING-UP OF THE CITY/MUNICIPAL QUOTA FROM AMONG THE RECOMMENDEES OF THE MAYOR OR IMPLEMENTATION OF THE PRIORITY RULE IN CASE OF LACK OF QUALIFIED APPLICANT

g. PREPARE MINUTES OF COMMITTEE DELIBERATIONS AND REQUIRED REPORTS

3. REGIONAL SCREENING OF APPLICANTS SHALL BE DONE IN BATCHES (BY PROVINCE OR CITY) SO AS TO CONFORM WITH THE QUOTA ALLOCATION AND MINIMIZE EXPENSES ON THE PART OF THE APPLICANTS.

4. THE FINAL EVALUATION INCLUDES THE SEQUENTIAL CONDUCT OF THE FOLLOWING EXAMINATIONS:

a. WRITTEN COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION

b. PHYSICAL AGILITY TEST

c. NEURO-PSYCHIATRIC EXAMINATION

d. COMPLETE PHYSICAL, MEDICAL AND DENTAL EXAMINATION

e. FINAL INTERVIEW

THE DRUG TEST SHALL NOT FOLLOW THE SEQUENTIAL STEPS BUT SHALL BE CONDUCTED ANYTIME. It shall be administered by the PNP Crime Laboratory. Report of the said test shall be prepared by the PNP officer who conducted the same duly certified under oath and submitted to the Regional Screening Committee within five (5) days from date of administration of test.

5. THE NAPOLCOM CENTRAL OFFICE SHALL FORMULATE THE TEST QUESTIONS FOR THE WRITTEN COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION FOR ADMINISTRATION BY THE REGIONAL SCREENING COMMITTEES.

THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION SHALL BE EQUIVALENT TO 100 POINTS; 50% SHALL BE ON GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (OBJECTIVE TYPE) AND 50% ON COMMUNICATION SKILLS (ESSAY TYPE).

THE QUESTIONS ON GENERAL KNOWLEDGE SHALL FOCUS ON CURRENT EVENTS, SIMPLE MATHEMATICAL COMPUTATION AND DATA INTERPRETATION.

ON THE OTHER HAND, QUESTIONS ON COMMUNICATION SKILLS SHALL DEAL WITH KNOWLEDGE OF GRAMMAR, READING COMPREHENSION AND VALUES/ATTITUDES.

THE CUT-OFF SCORE SHOULD NOT BE LESS THAN SIXTY PERCENT (60%). IDTSEH

6. The Physical Agility Test (PAT) shall be administered only to those who pass the written examination AND WITHIN THE FIRST ZONE OF CONSIDERATION, THAT IS, THE CITY/MUNICIPAL QUOTA PLUS 50%.IN NO CASE THE PAT BE CONDUCTED WITHOUT THE PRESENCE OF THE NAPOLCOM REPRESENTATIVE. The guidelines in the conduct of the Physical Agility Test are as follows:

a. The PAT is given to determine whether or not they possess the required coordination, strength and speed of movement necessary in the police service.

b. THE PAT SHALL CONSIST OF THE FOLLOWING EVENTS AND STANDARDS:

Maximum Total	100 pts
Passing:	70 pts
1)	Pull-ups (3 pts each) for Men		- MAX 21 pts
	Horizontal Bar Hang for Women
	(TIME IN SEC/ 6 = PTS)
2)	2-Minute Push-up		- MAX 20 pts
	Men	- 0.5 PT EACH
	Women	- 1.0 PT EACH
3)	2-Minute sit-ups		- MAX 21 pts
	Men	- 0.5 PT EACH
	Women	- 1.0 PT EACH
4)	100 Meter run		- MAX 20 pts

 

100 Meter Run
Men			Women
below 13 sec	=	20 pts	below 19 sec	=	20 pts
13 sec	=	18 pts	19 sec	=	18 pts
14 sec+	=	16 pts	20 sec+	=	16 pts
15 sec+	=	14 pts	21 sec+	=	14 pts
16 sec+	=	12 pts	22 sec+	=	12 pts
17 SEC AND UP	=	10 PTS	23 SEC AND UP	=	10 PTS

6) 1000 Meter Run - MAX 18 pts

1000 Meter Run
Men			Women
3 mins. 25 sec & below	=	18 pts	4 mins. 25 sec & below	=	18 pts
3 mins. 26 sec - 3.46 sec	=	16 pts	4 mins. 26 sec - 4.46 sec	=	16 pts
3 mins. 47 sec - 4.07 sec	=	14 pts	4 mins. 47 sec - 5.07 sec	=	14 pts
4 mins. 08 sec - 4.28 sec	=	12 pts	5 mins. 08 sec - 5.28 sec	=	12 pts
4 mins. 29 sec AND UP	=	10 pts	5 mins. 29 sec AND UP	=	10 pts

7. Applicants who passed the PAT shall undergo NEURO-PSYCHIATRIC EXAMINATION to be administered by the PNP for purposes of determining the mental capacity and emotional stability of the applicant to perform police functions. A report on who among the applicants passed and failed the said test duly certified under oath shall be prepared by the PNP officer who conducted the same and submitted to the Regional Screening Committee within five (5) days from the conduct of said examination.

THE PNP SHALL COORDINATE WITH THE AFP HOSPITAL OR THE REGIONAL DOH FOR ASSISTANCE IN THE CONDUCT OF NEURO-PSYCHIATRIC EXAMINATION OF APPLICANTS.

8. Applicants who passed the neuro-psychiatric examination shall go through a complete PHYSICAL, MEDICAL AND DENTAL EXAMINATION conducted by the PNP HEALTH SERVICE OR ACCREDITED DIAGNOSTIC CENTERS INSIDE THE CAMP (MOBILE CLINIC) OR OUTSIDE THE CAMP UNDER THE SUPERVISION OF THE PNP MEDICAL OFFICER AND NAPOLCOM REPRESENTATIVE to determine whether or not the applicants are in good health and free from any contagious diseases. A report certified under oath by the PNP Medical Officer and signed by the Committee members present on who among the applicants passed and failed the examination (and the reason behind their failure),shall be submitted to the Regional Screening Committee within five (5) days from the last day of medical and physical examination. The items to be covered by the PHYSICAL, MEDICAL AND DENTAL examination are shown in Annex A. cAaETS

9. Applicants who passed the PHYSICAL, MEDICAL AND DENTAL EXAMINATION shall be subjected to a CHARACTER AND BACKGROUND INVESTIGATION by the Regional/Provincial Intelligence Unit within thirty (30) days from receipt of the list of qualified applicants to determine their reputation and possible involvement in any questionable or criminal activities or violent incidents. The Regional Investigation and Intelligence Division/Provincial Investigation and Intelligence Division (RIID/PIID) shall submit the result of the validation of the character and background investigation to the Regional Screening Committee within three (3) days from completion thereof.

CONTINUING CHARACTER AND BACKGROUND INVESTIGATION SHALL BE CONDUCTED DURING THE ONE-YEAR PROBATIONARY PERIOD.

10. FINAL INTERVIEW — The Screening Committee shall interview en banc the applicants who passed the written COMPETITIVE examination, physical agility test, complete physical, medical and dental examination, neuro-psychiatric test, drug test and character and background investigation to determine their aptitude to join the police service, likableness, affability, outside interest, conversational ability, disagreeable mannerisms, etc.

11. The Screening Committee shall have a Summary Table containing the names of the qualified applicants by CITY AND MUNICIPALITY INCLUDING THEIR ELIGIBILITY AND QUALIFICATIONS and the result for each examination conducted.

D. CERTIFICATION BY THE NAPOLCOM

1. WITHIN TEN (10) WORKING DAYS, THE PNP REGIONAL SCREENING COMMITTEE THROUGH THE PNP REGIONAL DIRECTOR SHALL SUBMIT TO THE NAPOLCOM REGIONAL DIRECTOR, FOR CERTIFICATION OF THEIR QUALIFICATIONS AND ELIGIBILITY, THE LIST OF CANDIDATES AND THEIR RESPECTIVE FOLDERS.

2. THE NAPOLCOM REGIONAL DIRECTOR SHALL REVIEW AND RETURN THE CERTIFIED LIST OF PROPOSED APPOINTEES TO THE PNP REGIONAL DIRECTOR WITHIN THREE (3) WORKING DAYS FROM RECEIPT THEREOF, COPY FURNISHED THE CSC FIELD OFFICE DIRECTOR.

E. THE PREPARATION AND ISSUANCE OF APPOINTMENT PAPERS

1. The PNP Regional Director shall direct the Regional Personnel and Human Resource Development Division to prepare the appointments of the applicants assessed to be the most qualified and certified by the Napolcom Regional Directors using KSS Porma Blg. 33, in five (5) copies, to be distributed as follows:

Original	-	Appointee
Duplicate	-	RPHRDD
Triplicate	-	CSC
Quadruplicate	-	Appointee (initial copy)
Quintuplicate	-	RMD, DPRM

2. The PNP Regional Director shall approve and sign the KSS Porma Blg. 33 and shall, thereafter, submit the same to the Regional CSC for attestation within thirty (30) days from the date of issuance thereof, which should be the date appearing on the face of the appointment.

3. The CSC Field/Regional Office shall act on the appointments submitted and return the same to the appointing authority at the earliest.

Should the appointment submitted to the CSC be disapproved by the latter, the PNP Regional Director may file an appeal to the next higher CSC office within fifteen (15) days from receipt of the appointment.

4. NO APPOINTEE SHALL TAKE HIS OATH OF OFFICE (PANUNUMPA SA KATUNGKULAN) UNLESS HIS/HER APPOINTMENT HAS BEEN ISSUED.

5. The PNP Regional Director shall inform the Mayor of the appointment of his recommendees and furnish a copy of the list of appointees to the Napolcom Regional Director, PNP Provincial Director, Chief of Police concerned and the PPSC Regional Training School (RTS) concerned, within five (5) days from receipt of the attested appointment.

F. RECRUITMENT, SELECTION AND APPOINTMENT OF QUALIFIED APPLICANTS TO THE NATIONAL OFFICE OR A NATIONAL SUPPORT UNIT (NSU)

1. The DPRM shall allocate the recruitment quota of the national office or NSU based on their actual need for additional manpower, subject to the approval of the Commission. IDSaTE

2. Upon approval by the Commission, the DPRM and the NSU concerned shall undertake the widest dissemination of such quota, including such relevant information as to what to file, where to file and when to file.

3. Recruitment notice shall be posted in bulletin boards located in at least three (3) conspicuous public places. Advertisement through tri-media and other forms of information campaign may be resorted to.

4. Selection of qualified applicants for the National Offices or an NSU shall be done centrally at the PNP national office.

5. Police applicants shall submit their application papers at the recruiting NSU or the DPRM for the national office. The documents to be submitted are similar to those required under Section IV, (B, 2) hereof.

6. The National Office as well as the concerned NSU shall organize its Screening Committee composed of the following:

THE ADMINISTRATIVE OFFICER SHALL BE RESPONSIBLE 'IN THE PREPARATION OF REPORTS AND MAINTENANCE OF RECORDS OF THE SCREENING COMMITTEE. aEcTDI

7. Within ten (10) days from the submission of application papers, the Screening Committee starts conducting initial processing and preliminary interview of applicants to determine if they meet the minimum qualifications and eligibility.

8. The Screening Committee shall, within five (5) days from completion of initial screening, administer written COMPETITIVE examination to applicants who shall have passed the initial processing and preliminary interview.

9. APPLICANTS WHO PASSED THE WRITTEN COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION SHALL UNDERTAKE PAT. THAT IN NO CASE THE PAT BE CONDUCTED. WITHOUT THE PRESENCE OF THE NAPOLCOM REPRESENTATIVE.

10. APPLICANTS WHO PASSED THE PAT SHALL UNDERGO A NEUROPSYCHIATRIC EXAMINATION.

11. APPLICANTS WHO PASSED THE NEURO-PSYCHIATRIC EXAMINATION SHALL BE SUBJECTED TO COMPLETE PHYSICAL, MEDICAL AND DENTAL EXAMINATION.

12. THE DRUG TEST SHALL NOT FOLLOW THE SEQUENTIAL STEPS BUT SHALL BE CONDUCTED ANYTIME. It shall be administered by the PNP Crime Laboratory. Report of the said test shall be prepared by the PNP officer who conducted the same duly certified under oath and submitted to the Screening Committee within five (5) days from date of administration of test.

13. Applicants who passed the COMPLETE PHYSICAL, MEDICAL AND DENTAL EXAMINATION shall undergo a Character and Background Investigation to be conducted by the Directorate for Intelligence (DI) within thirty (30) working days which shall thereafter submit a report to the Committee within three days from completion of such examination. DacTEH

14. Applicants who passed the Character and Background Investigation shall have a final interview within five (5) working days from receipt by the Committee of the DI report.

15. The summary report on the result of each of the examination phases (written COMPETITIVE examination, PAT, neuro-psychiatric examination,COMPLETE PHYSICAL, MEDICAL AND DENTAL EXAMINATION, Drug Test, Character and Background Investigation, final interview) shall be prepared within three (3) working days from completion of each of such phases for reference of the Committee in the ranking of the candidates.

16. The list of qualified applicants who passed all the tests and the final interview shall be submitted to the Commission for certification of their qualifications and eligibility within three (3) working days from the completion of Summary Report on the Final Interview Results by the Screening Committee.

17. The Commission shall return the certified list within two (2) working days from issuance of such certification.

18. The DPRM shall prepare the Individual Appointments (KSS Porma Blg. 33) in five (5) copies, within fifteen (15) working days from receipt of the Commission-certified list, for distribution as follows:

19. The appointing authority shall approve and sign the Individual Appointment papers within three (3) working days from receipt thereof after which the DPRM shall, within five (5) working days from the date of issuance thereof, forward the same to the CSC Field Office at Camp Crame for attestation.

20. The CSC Field Office shall act on the appointment and thereafter return the same to the DPRM at the earliest.

21. The DPRM shall forward to the concerned national office or NSU the original copy of the attested appointment so that the latter may forward the same to the appointee within two (2) working days from receipt of attested appointment.

22. The national office or NSU shall provide the appointee with the original copy of the attested appointment, within three (3) working days.

23. A mass oath-taking ceremony shall be scheduled by the DPRM UPON ISSUANCE OF THE APPOINTMENT.

24. After the oath-taking of new appointees, the DPRM shall issue the Special Order AND TURN THEM OVER TO THE PPSC FOR THE REQUIRED PSBRC TRAINING.

G. RELATED GUIDELINES

1. The majority or quorum of the Screening Committee at the regional level REQUIRES the presence of the CHAIRPERSON AND VICE CHAIRPERSON.

2. The records of Screening Committees shall be available for inspection by the Commission or its duly authorized representatives.

3. ANY MISREPRESENTATION OR CONCEALMENT OF A MATERIAL FACT BY THE APPLICANT SUCH AS SUBMISSION OF FAKE ELIGIBILITY OR SPURIOUS DOCUMENTS SHALL BE A CAUSE FOR PERMANENT DISQUALIFICATION FOR APPOINTMENT INTO THE POLICE SERVICE. cHTCaI

SECTION V. Appointing Authorities.—

1. The PNP Regional Director has the authority to issue the initial appointment of qualified and eligible applicants to the rank of Police Officer I at the regional level.

2. The Chief, PNP is the appointing authority for appointees to the rank of Police Officer I at the national office.

3. The Director of the concerned National Support Unit (NSU) is the appointing authority for appointees to the rank of Police Officer I who shall be assigned to such particular unit.

SECTION VI. Status of Appointment of a Newly Appointed PO1.—

Temporary Appointment — Issued to a newly appointed PO1 who meets the required education and eligibility for the rank to which he is being appointed, except the training requirement which is the Public Safety Basic Recruit Course (PSBRC).Such temporary appointment shall not exceed twelve months reckoning from the date it was issued

Permanent Appointment — A permanent appointment shall be issued to a PO1 after completion of the required PSBRC and field training program for twelve (12) months involving actual experience and assignment in patrol, traffic and investigation.

SECTION VII. Appointment under A Waiver Program.—

A. Conditions on Waivers for Initial Appointment to the PNP

1. The age, height and weight for initial appointment to the PNP may be waived only when the number of qualified applicants falls below the APPROVED NATIONAL/REGIONAL quota.

2. The Commission en banc may grant age, height and weight WAIVER. THE NAPOLCOM REGIONAL DIRECTOR MAY GRANT HEIGHT WAIVER TO A MEMBER OF AN INDIGENOUS GROUP WITHIN THE REGION. PROVIDED, THAT APPLICANTS GRANTED HEIGHT WAIVER BY VIRTUE OF MEMBERSHIP IN AN INDIGENOUS GROUP SHALL ONLY BE CONSIDERED FOR APPOINTMENT IN THE AREAS WHEREIN THEY ARE CONSIDERED INDIGENOUS BY THE NATIONAL COMMISSION ON INDIGENOUS PEOPLE (NCIP) OR OFFICE ON MUSLIM AFFAIRS (OMA). ADECcI

3. Waiver of the age requirement may be granted provided that the applicant shall not be less than twenty (20) nor more than thirty-five (35) years of age. For purposes of this paragraph, one is considered to be not over thirty-five (35) years old if he or she has not yet reached his or her thirty-sixth (36th) birthday on the date of the effectivity of his or her appointment.

4. Waiver of the height requirement may be granted to a male applicant who is at least 1 meter and 57 cm (1.57m) and to a female applicant who is at least 1 meter and 52 cm (1.52m):Provided, that the Napolcom may set a lower height requirement for applicants who belong to indigenous group duly certified by the Office of the Muslim Affairs (OMA),or the National Commission on Indigenous Peoples (NCIP).Provided, further, that the Commission may require said applicants to submit appropriate proof of their membership in a certain indigenous group.

5. An applicant who is granted a weight waiver shall be given reasonable time but not exceeding six (6) months within which to comply with said requirement. FAILURE TO ATTAIN THE REQUIRED WEIGHT SHALL MEAN SEPARATION FROM THE SERVICE.

6. THE GRANT OF WAIVER IS NOT A GUARANTEE FOR APPOINTMENT INTO THE POLICE SERVICE.

B. Factors to be Considered in the Grant of Waivers

1. Outstanding accomplishments or possession of special skills in law enforcement, police work, MARTIAL ARTS, MARKSMANSHIP AND SIMILAR SKILLS;

2. SPECIAL TALENTS IN THE FIELD OF SPORTS, MUSIC, AND OTHERS;

3. Extensive experience or training in forensic science and other technical services.

C. Selection Criteria under the Waiver Program

1. Applicants who possess the least disqualifications shall take precedence over those who possess more disqualifications.

2. The requirement shall be waived in the following order:

a. Age

b. Height

c. Weight

3. Each applicant for waiver must possess special qualifications, skills, or attributes useful to or needed by the PNP such as those mentioned in letter B Section VII hereof, which are sufficient to compensate for his or her lack of certain minimum qualifications.

D. Reapplication of Separated PNP Members under the Waiver Program

Any PNP member who shall have entered and subsequently been separated under the weight or educational waiver aspects of the program shall be eligible to reapply for appointment to the PNP: Provided, that he or she possesses all the minimum qualifications required by his/her reappointment.

SECTION VIII. Penal Clause.—

Chiefs of Offices/Units and members of the Screening and Selection Committee including the head and members of the Secretariat who shall fail to strictly observe and comply with the above rules and procedures and other pertinent policies and regulations on appointment of police personnel shall be IMMEDIATELY RELIEVED, SHALL NOT BE DESIGNATED TO ANY POSITION OF MAJOR RESPONSIBILITY AND SHALL NOT BE CONSIDERED FOR PROMOTION PENDING RESOLUTION OF THE CASE.

SECTION IX. Effectivity.—

This Circular shall take effect after fifteen (15) days from the filing of a copy hereof at the University of the Philippine Law Center in consonance with Sections 3 and 4 of Chapter 2, Book VII of Executive Order No. 292, otherwise known as "The Revised Administrative Code of 1987," as amended.

ADOPTED this 14th day of June, 2005 at Makati City, Metro Manila, Philippines.

(SGD.) ANGELO T. REYESSecretary, DILG

(SGD.) IMELDA C. ROCESCommissioner

 

(SGD.) LINDA L. MALENAB-HORNILLACommissioner

 

(SGD.) CELIA SANIDAD-LEONESCommissioner

 

(SGD.) MIGUEL G. CORONELCommissioner

 

(SGD.) PDG ARTURO C. LOMIBAOCommissioner

 

Attested by:

 

(SGD.) ADELMALYN A. MUNIEZAChief, Secretariat

ANNEX A

TABLE OF CONTENTS

I GENERAL

II MEDICAL EXAMINATION BOARDS

III HEALTH PROFILE SYSTEM

IV GENERAL EXAMINATION INCLUDING HEIGHT, WEIGHT, AND CHEST MEASUREMENT

V SKIN

VI EYES

VII EARS

VIII MOUTH, NOSE, FAUSES, LARYNX, TRACHEA, ESOPHAGUS, PHARYNX

IX DENTAL EXAMINATION

X HEAD AND NECK

XI FACE

XII SPINE AND PELVIS, INCLUDING SACRO-ILIAC AND LUMBO SACRAL JOINTS

XIII EXTREMITIES

XIV CHEST

XV LUNGS

XVI HEART AND VASCULAR SYSTEM

XVII ABDOMINAL ORGANS AND WALLS

XVIII GENITO-URINARY SYSTEM INCLUDING SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES

XIX NEUROLOGICAL AND PSYCHIATRIC DISORDERS

XX MALINGERING

XXI EXAMINATIONS OF FEMALES

XXII REPORTS AND RECORDS

XXIII RESCISSION

XXIV EFFECTIVITY

Republic of the Philippines

PNP CIRCULAR _______________ _________________ Date

PRESCRIBING THE CRITERIA/STANDARDS FOR THE PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICE HEALTH PROFILE SYSTEM RELATIVE TO THE CONDUCT OF COMPLETE MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS

SECTION I

GENERAL

PURPOSE:

a. This Circular prescribes the criteria for determining the PNP Personnel Health Profile System and sets guidelines for the conduct of Complete Medical Examination on those desiring to join the Police Service and Annual Medical Examination of those already in the service. TCASIH

b. Standards of Medical Examinations are prescribed to secure efficiency and uniformity in performing the examinations and reporting of the findings. Medical examiners should always apply the standards with the object to procure and retain in the police service individuals who are physically and mentally fit and who are expected to remain so in the performance of police duties.

REFERENCES:

a. Republic Act 6975 (DILG Act of 1990)

b. Memo Circular No. 92-015 dated 26 November 1992

c. NAPOLCOM Resolution 94-011 dated 22 March 1994

d. NAPOLCOM Resolution 94-013 dated 29 March 1994

e. Republic Act 8551 (PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of 1998)

f. AFPR G 165-362 dated 29 October 1996 entitled "Standards of Physical Examination in the Armed Forces of the Philippines".

REQUESTS FOR MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS:

These will be made only by authorized officers and performed by the Medical and Dental Units as indicated below:

Purpose of Exam	When done	Made By	Examining Bd
Lateral Entry	As required	DPRM/NSU	Med-Den Bd, NHQ PNP
		Directors
Promotion	As required	DPRM/NSU	Med-Den Bd, NHQ PNP/PROs
		Directors
Schooling Abroad	As required	DPRM/NSU	Med-Den Bd, NHQ PNP
		Directors
PNPA Cadetship	As required	DIR, PNPA	Med-Den Bd, PNPA Disp
Special Training	As required	DPRM/NSU	Med-Den Bd, NHQ PNP
		Directors
Disability Separation	As required	DPRM/NSU	Med-Den Bd, NHQ PNP
		Directors
Local Schooling	As required	DPRM/ARDP	Med-Den Bd, PRO
Recruitment	As required	DPRM/ARDP	Med-Den Bd, PRO
Annual PE	As required	DPRM/ARDP	Med-Den Bd, PRO
Discharge	As required	DPRM/ARDP	Med-Den Bd, PRO
Retirement	As required	DPRM/ARDP	Med-Den Bd, PRO
Employment of	As required	DPRM/ARDP	Med-Den Bd, PRO
Civilians

APPLICATION OF STANDARDS:

Each individual will be examined in detail in comparison with the standards prescribed herein and shall be classified according to the Health Profiling System:

a. Individuals entering the service in the Lateral Entry and Recruitment Categories should be free from any defect or pathological condition that would interfere with the performance of police duties, which may undergo progressive change under the rigors of police work, or become a basis of a claim against the government. Candidates for these categories shall retain the key Profile 1.

b. In the Annual PE of PNP members, P1, P2 and P3 classifications are acceptable. Examinees with conditions giving rise to P4 Profile are immediately hospitalized for treatment or disposition.

c. Male examiners who are 40 years old and above are categorized as P2.

d. Female uniformed police personnel shall at least qualify for a P3 Profile for acceptance and retention in the police service.

e. For Retirement and Discharge from the service, physical examinations within the last six (6) months shall be done.

f. The Chairman of the Examining Boards shall require all examinees to state whether they have been previously disqualified in a medical examination and this must be thoroughly evaluated and properly recorded in the medical history.

REPORTING:

Results of medical examinations are CONFIDENTIAL and may be release only to authorized persons/offices. Adequate precautions during the process of examination will be made to prevent premature or improper release of information by unauthorized persons/agencies. DACIHc

All reports, regardless of which Health Facility has conducted the examinations, are to be reflected in a standard format on Report of Medical Examination (RME) to be accomplished by the PNP Medical-Dental Board in triplicate copies, one copy for the Requesting Police Office, another copy to be forwarded to the Office of the Director, Health Service and the last copy to be retained by the Examining Facility.

SECTION II

MEDICAL EXAMINATION BOARDS

BOARD OF OFFICERS TO CONDUCT MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS:

A Medical-Dental Board will be formed or created in every hospital, PRO or Special Police Unit, the composition of which must have the following minimum requirements:

AUTHORITY TO PERFORM MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS:

Physical Tests, to include Psychiatric/Psychological and Drug Test shall be done only upon a written request by DPRM or ARDPs or Unit Personnel of NSUs to Chief, PNP General Hospital or Chief, Regional Health Service who are concurrently designated Chairpersons of the Medical-Dental Boards.

Although NAPOLCOM-Accredited Government Hospitals are also given the authority to conduct same, this task should be basically entrusted to PNP Health Facilities in order to have more uniformity and less room for personal idiosyncrasy in the conduct of the examinations and in the preparation of reports.

In the event that PNP Health Facilities are not capable of satisfying this mandate, they will still bear the responsibility of receiving requests from Police Units, making referrals to NAPOLCOM-Accredited Government Hospitals if warranted, rendering reports to requesting police offices and maintaining health records of the examinees.

CONDUCT OF MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS:

Procedures used in the conduct of medical examinations is an internal affair of the Board to suit the number of examinees, physical arrangements of rooms, facilities, personnel, and other related problems. A check list is used to guide examinees from one examiner to another. Findings or results will be reported directly to the Chairman or Recorder. In no case should any finding or result be hand-carried by the examinee. Every Board will prepare an SOP on the conduct of medical examinations to include the designations and items for which each member is responsible. The Chairman will be the last one to sign after his review of the whole Medical Report.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS FOR EXAMINATIONS:

1. The examinee will be carefully questioned about his past and present physical condition including his family history. Special inquiry will be made regarding any serious illness, injury or operation he may have had. Following any major surgical operation, the examination of an individual should be deferred for sufficient period of time to insure complete recovery without sequelae. The minimum period of time of deferment following a major surgical operation should be at least three (3) months. The actual period of deferment time longer than three (3) months will depend upon the condition for which operated and upon the discretion of the medical examiners. It is especially important that all significant data be accurately recorded in the appropriate paragraph of the report of physical examination. AcSHCD

2. Each examinee will be subjected to a thorough medical examination including an X-ray of the chest, ECG, serological test for STD, drug test and a urine examination including a microscopic examination. An electrocardiogram will be made for all lateral entry, recruitment, annual PE examinations if the examinee is 25 years of age or older, or, when indicated. All medical officers engaged in making these examinations are enjoined to exercise utmost care in these procedures to assure themselves that all findings are fully and accurately recorded. Sufficient time must be given to the examination to make certain that every detail is purposely carried out. Each defect noted must be recorded in such a clear and complete manner that no question as to its character, degree and significance can arise when the report of the Board is reviewed. When an examinee is disqualified, the cause must be clearly established and properly recorded in order to be conclusive regarding the propriety of the classification. Symptoms of a disease will not be noted as causes of disqualification it is possible to arrive at a definite diagnosis. Examinees will not be accepted subject to performance of surgical operations for the removal or cure of defects. The same physical standards will apply to all examinees regardless of purpose.

SECTION III

HEALTH PROFILE SYSTEM

GENERAL:

1. The HEALTH PROFILE SERIAL SYSTEM is based primarily upon the functional ability of an individual to perform all police duties and activities, and in relation to this performance, the functions of the various organ systems and integral parts of the body are considered. Since the analysis of the individual's physical and mental status plays an important role in his future assignment and welfare, not only the functional grading be executed with great care but also a clear and accurate description of his physical and mental conditions are essential. In developing the system, the human functions have been categorized into six (6) factors in accomplishing and applying the profile system designed as "PULHES".The factors to be considered, the parts affected, and the bodily function involved are as follows:

a. "P" = Physical capacity or stamina

Organic defects, age, build, strength, stamina, height, weight, ability, energy, muscular coordination and similar factors.

Diseases and other conditions that may be aggravated by police duties. ITScHa

This is the KEY FACTOR in the physical classification of the examinee.

b. "U" = Upper extremities

Functional use of hands, arms, shoulder girdle and spine (cervical, thoracic, lumbar) to include strength, range of motion, general efficiency and structural defect. Use exercise test

c. "L" = Lower extremities

Functional use, strength, range of motion and general efficiency of feet, legs, pelvic girdle and lower back (sacral spine).Note defect. Use exercise test.

d. "H" = Hearing (including ear defects)

The auditory acuity is to be considered as well as organic defects and lesions.

e. "E" = Eyes

The visual acuity is to be considered as well as organic defects and lesions.

f. "S" Neuropsychiatric

Emotional stability, personality and neuropsychiatric history and disorders will be considered.

2. There are four (4) grades in each of the six (6) factors. For ease of application and to assure uniformity of recording, these regulations will be used as a guide for considering certain defects.

3. Minor physical defects will not automatically down grade an individual because defects have different values in relation to performances of duties. While the defect must be given consideration in accomplishing the profile, it is important to consider function and prognosis especially regarding the possibility of aggravation. In this connection, a close relationship must exist between the attending, medical officers and PE classification officers. The determination of assignments is an administrative procedure. On the basis of the medical officer's report the classification officer may more readily assess the individual's ability to fill certain duty positions.

The individual's profile therefore must state whether or not the individual may be employed in certain duty positions.

4. The "P" factor is to be used to indicate organic defects of a nature which may not necessarily be reflected in the other factors "U"."L","II","E",and S".

Examples: Hernia, cardiovascular disease, asthma, newgrowth, peptic ulcer, Class I dental defects, and others

If an individual has a higher number in one of the factors other than the "P",it follows in such a way that the "P" should always correspond to the highest number or may even be higher if systematic defects are present. The "P" is the key factor and is used to indicate the general classification as follows:

a. P1 = may engage in fatiguing work, marching and prolonged hand-to-hand fighting for long periods of time. Free from any disease.

b. P2 = may be exposed to the same rigors as P1, but may have minor defects as slight limitation of movements. Free from any disease Forty (40) years old and above.

c. P3 = may serve in operations support capacities including ability to work for long, periods of time and defend himself in close encounters.

d. P4 = unqualified for police service as he/she fails to meet the criteria of the first three classification.

SUFFIXES TO SERIAL:

In order to make the profile serial more informative, a code letter or a combination of code letters will be used as a suffix where applicable as specified below:

a. "R" = will be used to indicate that an individual has a remediable physical defect which does not prevent utilization, the correction of which would improve the general health and welfare of the individual. Those defect/s must be corrected or treated within three (3) months after the examination. aSTAcH

b. "I" = will be used to indicate that the individual has a remediable physical defect, temporary in nature, which would prevent an immediate field/combat assignment. Such individuals are temporarily disqualified and immediate measures must be taken for their treatment/hospitalization.

c. "D" = will be used to indicate that the individual has a physical defect which under current standards is permanently disqualifying and if in the service should be immediately hospitalized for disposition.

d. "O" = will be used to indicate that the individual is physically qualified for aircrew assignments.

PROFILE SERIAL CHART:

Below is the chart including, key limiting characteristics of each factor in the profile. For details see succeeding sections covering the different organ systems.

PHYSICAL PROFILE SERIAL CHART

	"P"
PROFILE	PHYSICAL	"U"	"L"
SERIAL	CAPACITY AND	UPPER EXTREMITIES	LOWER
	STAMINA		EXTREMITIES
	Able to perform	Bones, joints and muscles	Bones, muscles and
	maximum sustained	normal; must be able to do	joints normal. Must be
	effort over extreme long	hand-to-hand fighting	capable of performing
	periods		long marching and
1			continue standing for
			long periods. No defects
			which prevent running,
			climbing and digging
	Able to perform	Slightly limited joint	Slightly limited.
	sustained efforts over	mobility; muscular weakness	Mobility of joints,
	long periods.	or other Muscular skeletal	muscular weakness or
		defects which do not prevent	other musculo-skeletal
2		hand-to-hand fighting, for	defects which do not
		prolonged periods.	prevent marching,
			climbing, running, or
			digging for prolonged
			period.
	Able to perform	Defects causing moderate	Defect causing moderate
	sustained efforts for	interference with function but	interference with
	moderate periods under	Capable of sustained efforts	function but capable of
3	support conditions.	for short periods.	sustained effort for short
			periods.
	Below minimum	Below minimum standards	Below minimum
4	standards for police	for police service	standards for police
	service		service.
Factors	Organic defects, stamina,	Strength, range of motion and	Strength, range of
to be	build, height, weight,	general efficiency of upper	movement and
evaluated	age, strength, agility,	arms, shoulder girdle and	efficiency of foot, pelvic
	energy, muscular	back including cervical, and	and lower back.
	coordination, function	thoracic lumbar vertebrae.
	and similar factors.
	Diseases and other
	conditions that may be
	aggravated by police
	service/duty.
PROFILE	"H"	"E"	"S"
SERIAL	HEARING OR EARS	VISION OR EYES	NEUROPSYCHIATRIC
	Auditory acuity 15/15 by	Meets acceptable Ocular	No Neuropsychiatric
	whisper test. No organic	standards with a minimum	disorder. No Neurologic
1	defects.	vision of 20/40 in each eye,	nor psychiatric disorder.
		corrected with glasses to
		20/20 in both eyes. No.
		organic disease of Either eye
		exists. Ability to distinguish
		red and green, J1 or J2, OU
		for near vision.
	Minimum hearing of	Meets acceptable Standards	No intermediate grade
2	15/15 in one ear and not	as prescribed in these
	less than 8/15 in other	regulations and visual acuity
	with no active or	should not be less than
	progressive organic	20/100 in each eye
	disease.	correctable to 20/40 provided
		the defective vision is not
		due to active progressive
		organic disease. J3 up to J6
		OU for near vision.
	Minimum hearing of	Meets acceptable standards	Transient situational
3	8/15 in the other with no	of these regulations with	reaction. Psychoneurotic
	active progressive	minimum vision of 20/20 in	disorders
	organic disease	each eye correctable to 20/30
		in one eye and 20/100 in the	Psychophysiologic
		second eye. For retention in	system reaction or
		the service, this includes	psychosomatic disorders.
		those individuals with any
		degree of defective vision in
		one eye, from below 20/200,
		to no light perception, if such
		Defect is not due to active or
		progressive organic disease,
		with vision in the other eye
		20/100 correctable.
	Do not meet the	Do not meet the standards	Psychosis, moderate or
4	standards for police	for police service	severe Chronic
	service.		psychoneurosis, Severe
			Transient psychoneurosis
			(situation)
			PPSR and personality
			Disorders
			Marked degrees of
			character and behavior
			disorders
			Mental deficiency
Factors to	Auditory acuity and	Visual acuity and Organic	Type, severity and
be evaluated	organic defects of the	defects of the eyes and lids	duration of the
	audiosystem.		psychiatric symptoms or
			disorders existing at the
			time the profile is
			determined
			Amount of external
			Precipitating stress
			Predisposition as
			determined by the basic
			personality make-up
			Intelligence Performance
			History of post-psychiatric
			disorders and impairment of
			the functional capacity.

REVISION OF PROFILE:

The physical profiles of all individuals with "P" defects are reviewed by the unit medical officer every three (3) months. This is for the purpose of remedial action. The medical officer will insure that all such individuals receive medical/surgical treatment to remove the suffix. Any "R" suffix remaining for more than six (6) months shall be cause for disciplinary or dispository action by the unit commander.

Individual with "T" and "D" suffixes will be evacuated immediately to the nearest PNP Health Service Hospital/facility for treatment and/or disposition.

SECTION IV

GENERAL EXAMINATION INCLUDING HEIGHT, WEIGHT AND CHEST MEASUREMENTS

GENERAL EXAMINATION:

The examination will be conducted with the subject entirely without clothes and his/her shoes removed. This will be done in a well-lighted room. A thorough general inspection of the entire body will be made, noting the proportion and symmetry of the various parts of the body, the chest development, the condition and tone of the muscles, the general nutrition, the character of the skin, and the presence of any deformity or underdevelopment. Physical examination of females shall be conducted with due regard for privacy and in the presence of a female nurse or female attendant. Drapes and gowns shall be used when appropriate. CTHaSD

HEIGHT:

The height will be taken with the applicant without shoes with a measuring scale known to be accurate and will be recorded in meters and/or nearest centimeters. The measuring rod will consist of a board at least 2 inches wide by 80 inches long, placed vertically, firmly fixed, with accurate graduation of 1/4 inch between 58 cm and the top end. Obtain the rod, a board of about 6x6x2 cms best permanently attached to the graduated board by a long cord. Where a measurement rod is attached as part of the scales this may be used but should be checked for accuracy. The individual will stand erect with his back to the graduated rod, eyes straight to the front.

MINIMUM STANDARDS FOR HEIGHT AND WEIGHT:

TABLE NO. I

	CATEGORY	Minimum Height in Centimeters
a.	Male	162.00 cms
b.	Female	157.00 cms

WEIGHT:

The applicant shall be weight without shoes and clothes. Weights shall be made on a standard set of scales that are known to be correct. The weight shall be recorded in kilograms. The applicant's weight should be well distributed and in proportion to age, sex, height and skeletal structure. The purpose of the standard is to facilitate detection and disqualification of the unduly obese and to avoid disqualifying muscular, healthy applicants. cCDAHE

DIRECTIONS FOR TAKING CHEST MEASUREMENTS:

The candidate will be made to stand erect with his feet together and arms hanging loosely at the side. The measuring tape will be carefully adjusted around the chest, with the upper edge of the tape just below the lower angles of the scapulas behind and the nipples in front. The tape should be approximately horizontal. The candidate will then be directed to take several deep breaths, followed by complete inhalation, in order to verify the maximum and minimum measurements. Care must be taken not to displace the tape and to avoid muscular contortions, which frequently cause a greater inspiratory measurement than the actual lung capacity warrants. Great patience and care are often necessary to obtain correct results. The chest measurement at expiration will be recorded in centimeters and fractions of a centimeter to quarters. The mobility is the difference between the measurements recorded on inspiration and expiration.

TABLE NO. 2

THE STANDARDS FOR HEIGHT AND WEIGHT FOR MALES

Height		AGE 21-25			AGE 26-30		Maximum
in							Chest
Meters	Minimum	Standard	Maximum	Minimum	Standard	Maximum	Requirement
1.52	49.09	54.54	68.18	50.00	55.48	69.54	73
1.54	50.00	55.45	69.54	50.00	56.36	70.45	74
1.57	50.90	56.36	70.45	51.36	57.27	71.87	74
1.60	51.36	57.27	71.82	52.72	58.18	72.73	75
1.62	52.37	56.18	72.73	53.63	59.55	74.55	76
1.65	54.00	60.00	75.00	55.00	61.36	76.82	76
1.67	55.55	61.82	77.27	56.82	63.18	79.09	76
1.70	57.27	63.64	79.55	58.64	65.00	81.56	77
1.72	59.09	65.45	81.62	60.00	66.82	83.63	78
1.75	60.46	67.27	84.09	61.82	68.64	85.91	78
1.77	61.27	69.55	86.36	63.18	70.45	88.18	80
1.80	63.64	70.91	88.64	65.00	72.27	90.45	80
1.82	65.09	73.18	91.36	67.27	74.55	93.18	81
1.85	67.73	75.46	94.55	69.09	76.82	95.91	83
1.87	70.00	77.73	97.27	71.36	79.09	99.09	85
1.90	71.92	80.00	100.00	73.18	81.36	101.82	87
1.93	74.09	82.27	102.73	75.46	83.64	104.55	88
1.95	75.90	84.55	105.45	77.27	85.91	107.27	89
1.98	78.18	86.82	108.64	79.55	88.18	110.00	90

TABLE NO. 3

WEIGHT STANDARDS FOR WOMEN

Height in		AGE 21-25			AGE 26-30
Meters	Minimum	Standard	Maximum	Minimum	Standard	Maximum
1.57	45.19	51.36	65.45	46.38	62.27	66.81
1.60	46.86	52.27	66.61	47.27	53.18	67.81
1.62	48.18	53.18	67.72	48.62	54.54	69.54
1.65	50.00	55.45	70.00	50.00	56.81	70.90
1.67	51.36	57.27	71.36	51.81	58.18	72.72
1.70	53.72	59.09	72.27	53.64	60.00	75.45
1.72	54.00	61.36	74.51	55.00	61.37	77.27
1.75	55.45	62.27	76.63	56.80	63.63	79.09
1.77	57.27	64.09	79.54	80.29	64.90	81.36

The weight for each height for the age group 26-30 is the ideal one to maintain thereafter. Weight for each height and age group below the minimum indicated in TABLE 3 will not be accepted.

TABLE NO. 4

THE STANDARD WEIGHT FOR EACH HEIGHT

Height	Age 31-35	Age 36-40	Age 41-45	Age 46-50	Age 51-60	Minimum
in											Chest
Meter	Stand	Maxi	Stand	Max	Stand	Max	Stand	Max	Stand	Max
1.52	56.82	71.36	58.18	72.73	59.55	74.55	60.45	75.45	61.36	76.82	66.00
1.54	57.73	72.27	59.99	74.09	60.46	75.46	61.35	76.82	62.27	77.73	74.93
1.57	58.64	73.18	60.00	75.00	61.36	76.82	62.27	77.73	63.18	79.09	74.93
1.60	59.55	74.55	60.91	76.36	62.27	77.19	63.15	79.09	64.09	80.00	75.57
1.62	60.94	76.36	62.27	77.72	63.64	79.55	64.55	80.91	65.46	81.82	76.20
1.65	62.73	78.64	64.09	80.00	65.46	81.82	66.36	83.18	67.87	84.09	76.20
1.67	64.55	80.91	65.91	82.27	67.27	82.18	68.18	85.46	69.09	86.36	76.84
1.70	66.36	83.18	67.73	84.55	69.09	86.36	70.00	87.73	70.91	88.64	77.47
1.72	68.09	85.46	69.55	86.82	70.91	88.64	71.82	90.00	72.73	90.91	78.11
1.75	70.00	87.73	71.36	89.09	72.73	90.91	73.64	92.27	74.55	93.18	78.74
1.77	72.82	90.00	73.18	91.36	74.55	93.18	75.46	95.55	76.36	95.46	79.38
1.80	73.64	92.27	75.00	93.63	76.36	95.45	77.27	98.18	78.15	97.70	80.65
1.82	75.90	95.00	77.27	96.82	78.63	98.18	79.54	100.54	80.45	100.45	81.92
1.85	78.13	97.72	79.54	99.55	80.90	101.36	81.61	102.27	82.72	103.60	83.19
1.87	80.45	100.45	81.61	102.27	83.18	104.09	64.09	105.00	85.00	106.36	85.05
1.89	82.72	103.63	84.81	105.00	85.45	106.81	86.36	108.18	87.27	109.09	87.00
1.93	85.00	106.36	86.30	108.18	87.72	109.54	88.63	110.90	89.55	111.81	88.26
1.95	87.27	109.09	88.30	110.90	90.00	112.72	90.90	113.64	91.00	116.00	89.54
1.98	89.54	111.81	90.90	113.63	92.27	115.45	93.18	116.36	92.09	117.72	90.81

NOTE: a. The standard weight for each height for the Group 26-30 is the ideal one to maintain thereafter. SAHITC

 b. The candidate whose weight falls at the extremes of either the minimum or maximum range is acceptable only when he is obviously active, muscular and evidently vigorous and healthy.

 c. A minimum chest expansion of 1 1/2 inches will be required.

TABLE NO. 5

THE STANDARDS FOR CHEST MEASUREMENT FOR WOMEN

* Candidates entering the Police Service must not exceed Cup B.

SIZE IN CMS	65	70	75	80	85	80
UNDERBREAST	63-67	58-72	73-77	78-82	83-87	88-92
OVER	DIFF
BREAST	Cms
CUP A	10	73-74	78-80	83-85	88-90	93-94	98-100
CUP B	13	76-78	81-83	86-88	91-93	96-98	101-103
CUP C	15	78-80	83-85	88-90	93-95	98-100	103-105

NOTE: Medical examiners will recommend rejection of individuals who show poor physical development, and those who appear to be undesirable candidates because of excessive fat, even though their measurements may come within the limits stated in the above Table. In such instances, the report will show in detail the findings upon which recommendations for rejection is based. HEcTAI

CONDITIONS WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION (P4)

a. Any deformity which is repulsive or which prevents the proper functioning of any part to a degree that will interfere with police efficiency.

b. Deficient muscular development due to deficient nutrition.

c. Evidences of physical characteristics of congenital asthenia, such as slender bones, weak ill-developed thorax, visceptosis and poor constitution.

d. All acute communicable diseases.

e. All diseases and conditions which are not easily remediable or such that it tends to incapacitate the individual physically such as:

(1) Chronic malaria or malarial cachexia

(2) Severe unciniriasis

(3) Leprosy, actinomycosis

(4) Pellagra, beri-beri, sprue and scurvy

(5) Rheumatic fever within the previous five (5) years, atrophic or hypertrophic arthritis, chronic myositis or fibrositis, rheumatoid arthritis

(6) Osteomyelitis

(7) Malignant disease of any kind in any location, history of operation for malignancy within the preceding, five (5) years.

(8) Hemophilia; thrombocytopenic purpura

(9) Leukemia of all types

(10) Asthma

(11) Primary or secondary anemia

(12) Filariasis, trypanosomiasis, schistosomiasis

(13) Diabetes of any degree, borderline or suspected cases should undergo OGTT or HBAIC determination AcTDaH

(14) Hypo or Hyperfunction of endocrine glands

(Example: pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, pancreas, adrenal, etc.).Likewise, any anatomic abnormality must be resolved first prior to acceptance in the service even if said organ/s is/are functionally normal: auto-immune reaction

(15) Chronic metallic poisoning

(16) Gout, Simmond's disease

(17) Migraine

(18) Hay fever, food intolerance, angioneurotic edema or other allergic manifestations if more than mild in degree

(19) Benign newgrowth condition in OB-Gyn which might interfere with police duties.

a) dysfunctional uterine bleeding

b) pregnancy

c) dysmenorrhea

d) amenorrhea

(20) Immune Deficiency Syndrome as found by (+) HIV-Test.

(21) (a) PNP uniformed personnel who are in active police service diagnosed to have NIDDM may be classified as Profile P3 if they fall under any of following categories:

i. Those cases which are adequately controllable by diet and exercise with or without medications.

ii. Those cases without any stigma or complications definitely ascribable to it and adequately controlled by oral hypoglycemics or minimal amount of insulin (not more than 40 units per day)

(b) Those cases who are in active PNP service and diagnosed to have NIDDM which cannot be adequately controlled by diet, exercise and medicines and/or those with complications definitely related to or ascribable to DM are classified as unfit for further PNP services (Disability Separation).

SECTION V

SKIN

SKIN EXAMINATION:

The skin will be carefully inspected for presence of disease. The examination should be conducted in a well-lighted room, preferably by daylight. AHcaDC

CONDITIONS WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION OR DISPOSITORY ACTION (P4):

a. Eczema; allergic dermatitis

b. Pemphigus; lupus; mycosis

c. Actinomycosis; dermatitis, herpetiformis; mycosis fungoides.

d. Ichthyosis; psoriasis if more than slight degree.

e. Acne on face or neck, which is so, pronounced as to be definitely unsightly.

f. Elephantiasis

g. Scabies; impetigo

h. Furuncolosis, unless mild in degree

i. Ulcerations of the skin not amenable to treatment, or those of long standing, or of considerable extent, or of syphilis, tuberculosis, malignancy or leprous origin.

j. Extensive, deep or adherent scars that interfere with muscular movement or with the wearing of PNP equipment, or that show a tendency to break down and ulcerate. DIETcC

k. Naevi or vascular tumors which are extensive, markedly disfiguring or exposed to constant pressure.

l. Obscene, offensive or indecent tatooing.

m. Vitiligo of the face of sufficient severity to be markedly disfiguring.

n. Chronic trichophytosis or other chronic fungus infections which have not been amenable to treatment.

o. Chronic urticaria and chronic angioneurotic edema.

p. Exfoliating dermatitis, severe chronic seborrhoic dermatitis.

q. Chronic lichen planus, dermatitis factitia, sclero-derma.

r. Pilonidal cyst if painful, infected or purulent.

s. Plantar warts on weight-bearing areas.

SECTION VI

EYES

EYE EXAMINATION:

Each eye and adnexa will be examined for presence of abnormality or disease either acute or chronic. This includes disease of the eyelids, conjunctivae, presence of muscular imbalance, intraocular abnormalities including the detection of glaucoma. The examination should include eversion of the eyelids, digital palpation of the eyeballs, oblique illumination of the cornea, light and spatial reaction of the pupils, confrontation test, tonometry, opthalmoscopic survey of the opic media and retina. Color visual acuity test is required for all.

DETERMINATION OF VISUAL ACUITY:

a. DISTANT VISION = A visual acuity will be determined at a distance of 20 feet or the mirror equivalent under standard conditions of illumination. This illumination is obtained by using a 100 watts lamp, placed 5 feet diagonally from the 20/20 line of the test object, and incident to the part of the chart at 45 degrees angle. Lamps must be shielded from the direct vision of the examinee by an opaque shade. The individual to be tested should be examined without glasses.

Each eye is examined separately, the right eye first, covering the left eye completely with an appropriately occluder without applying pressure. The applicant is directed to read the prints from the top of the chart down as far as he can read. His acuity of vision is recorded for each eye separately with the distance of 20 feet as numerator of a fraction and the size of the type of the lowest line he can read correctly as the denominator. If he reads the 20 feet type correctly, his vision is normal and is recorded as 20/20; if he could read the 30 feet type only, the vision is imperfect and is recorded as 20/30; if he reads the 15 feet type chart or 40 feet type chart, the vision is recorded as 20/15 or 20/40, respectively, etc. In case he can read all the 20/feet, except one or two letters, the vision is recorded as 20/20-1 or 20/20-2, unless this deficiency is affected by the ability to read equal number of letters in the 20/15 line, in which case the vision is recorded as 20/20 acuity for the left eye and is then tested using a different chart if there is a suspicion that the examinee has memorized the letters of the chart. Reading the test letters in the reverse order is another way of gauging the true vision of the examinee. Prompt reading of the letters is required with 1 to 2 seconds per letter, reading time. Any person having a visual acuity less than 20/20 in either eye will be given the necessary examination such as refraction and to discover any organic defect of the eye. Visual acuity with refractive error will be recorded as follows:

DISTANT VISION: O.D. = 20/30 with - 0.50 cyl axis 180 = 20/20 O.S. = 20/100 with - 2.00 sph = 20/20

b. NEAR VISION = Vision acuity will be determined without glasses at the distance of 14 inches from the eye to be examined covering the other eye with an occluder without applying pressure using the Jaeger's test type and with an illumination using a 100 watts-lamp. Any examinee having a visual acuity less than Jaeger 1 in either or both eyes will be subjected to further examination and refraction to determine any organic defect of the eye.

VISUAL PROFILE CLASSIFICATION:

a. E1 = To meet acceptable ocular standards with a minimum vision of 20/40 in each eye, correctable with glasses to 20/20 in both eyes for near vision should be able to read J1 to J2 with no correction. No organic disease of either eye exists. Able to recognize colors using the Ishihara test. A normal color vision is required for entrance into the police service.

b. E2 = Meets acceptable standards as prescribed in these regulations and visual acuity will not be less than 20/100 in each eye correctable with glasses to 20/20 in each eye. For near vision J3 to J5 correctable with glasses to J1 provided defective vision is not due to active progressive organic disease.

c. E3 = Meets acceptable standards of these regulations with minimum vision of 20/200 in each eye, correctable to 20/30 in one eye and 20/100 in the second eye. This classification also includes those individuals with any degree of defective vision in one eye from below 20/200 to no light perception. For near vision J6 to J8 correctable with glasses to J1 to J3, if such defect is not due to active or progressive organic diseases, with vision in the other eye 20/100 correctable to 20/20 with glasses.

d. E4 = Visual acuity below minimum standards for acceptance or the presence on non-acceptable conditions enumerated below:

NON-ACCEPTABLE (E4):

(1) Vision less than the minimum requirement.

(2) Extensive destruction of the eyelids with impaired protection of the eye from exposure; disfiguring cicatrices and adhesions of the eyelids to each other or to the eyeball, inversion or eversion of the eyelids if uncorrectable, extreme lagophthalmos, ptosis, blepharospasm, chronic severe blepharitis.

(3) Trichiasis.

(4) Malignant growth.

(5) Acute or chronic dacryocystitis.

(6) Acute or chronic conjunctivitis, including severe vernal conjunctivitis and trachoma.

(7) Recurrent or extensive pterygium.

(8) Keratitis, acute or chronic, intractable or recurrent corneal ulcers.

(9) Uveitis, acute chronic or recurrent, retinitis, retinal degeneration or detachment, optic neuritis, papilledema and optic atrophy.

(10) Opacities or dislocations of the lens. ITAaHc

(11) Permanent and well-marked strabismus lower than 20 degrees deviation.

(12) Nystagmus of any degree.

(13) All types of glaucoma; abnormal visual fields because of brain lesions; any tumor of the orbit.

(14) Any organic disease of the eye or adnexae not specified above which threaten continuity of vision or impairment of visual function.

EYE DEFECTS WHICH ARE CAUSES OF PHYSICAL UNFITNESS FOR FURTHER POLICE SERVICE (Disability Separation):

a. Active eye disease or any progressive organic eye disease, regardless of the stage of the activity and resistant to treatment, which affect the visual acuity or visual field of an eye:

(1) The distant vision in the unaffected eye cannot be corrected to 20/20 degrees.

(2) The diameter of the visual fields in the unaffected eye is less than 20 degrees.

b. Alhakia, bilateral.

c. Atrophy of the optic nerve.

d. Chronic congestive glaucoma.

e. Degeneration of the eyeball, when visual loss is below the minimum limits of fitness or when the vision is correctable only by the use of contact lenses or other corrective devises (telescopic lenses),etc.

f. Diseases and infections of the eye, when chronic, more than mildly symptomatic, progressive, and resistant to the treatment after six (6) months period.

g. Ocular manifestations of endocrine or metabolic disorders do not in themselves render the individual physically unfit. However, the residuals of complications of the underlying disease make one physically unfit.

h. Residuals or complications of injury to the eye which are progressive or which bring vision below the criteria of fitness.

i. Retinal Detachment:

(1) UNILATERAL:

(a) When vision in the better eye cannot be corrected to 20/40.

(b) When visual field in the better eye is less than 20.

(c) When uncorrectable diplopia exists.

(d) When the detachment is the result of documented, organic, progressive disease, or new growth, regardless of the condition of the better eye.

(2) BILATERAL:

Regardless of etiology, results of surgery and/or laser therapy.

VISUAL DEFECTS WHICH ARE CAUSES OF PHYSICAL UNFITNESS FOR FURTHER POLICE SERVICE (Disability Separation):

a. Anisokeinia: Subjective eye discomfort, neurologic symptoms, sensations of motion sickness and other gastrointestinal disturbance, functional disturbance, and difficulties in form sense, and not corrected by isoikenic lenses.

b. Binocular diplopia: Not correctable by surgery and which is severe, constant and in a zone less than 20 degrees from the primary position.

c. Loss of an eye: An individual whose loss of an eye was due to other progressive eye disease, who has a satisfactory prosthesis and who adjusts well to the wearing of the prosthesis, may be recommended for continuance.

d. Night blindness: Of such a degree that the individual requires assistance for travel at night.

e. Visual acuity which cannot be corrected to at least 20/40 in the better eye.

f. Visual fields contracted to less than 20 degrees.

SECTION VII

EARS

EAR EXAMINATIONS:

The auricles will be examined by inspection under proper illumination. Their shape and symmetry are observed. The external auditory canals and tympanic membranes are inspected with reflected light and ear speculum by a self-illumination otoscope. Cerumen or other objects are removed from the ear canal if present in order to visualize the eardrum satisfactorily. Patency of the Eustachian tube is determined by insulation if obstruction of this structure is suspected.

DETERMINATION OF AUDITORY ACUITY:

a. Conversational Voice Tests:

In determining hearing acuity by conversational voice, place the examinee at right angle to the examiner, 20 feet distance, with the ear to be tested toward the examiner and the other ear closed by pressing the tragus firmly against the meatus, and directing him to repeat promptly words spoken by the examiner. Words denoting low tones like "SEVEN","SISTER",and "FEET" are spoken one at a time in a low, even conversational voice. If the examinee cannot hear the word at 20 feet, the examinee should approach foot by foot, using the same tone but different word, until it is repeated correctly. Examine the ears separately in a quiet room. The acuity of hearing is expressed in a fraction, the numerator of which is the distance in feet at which the words are heard by the examinee and the denominator is 20, thus 20/20 indicates a normal hearing, 10/20 shows hearing impairment to such a degree that the examine could only hear at 10 feet distance the words which a normal ear can hear at 20 feet.

b. Whispered Voice Test:

Hearing acuity is also determined by whispered voice. The same procedure employed in the Conversational Voice Test is used here but the distance is only 15 feet between the examinee and examiner, using unaccentuated whisper (residual air),to assure uniform output of voice. Acuity of hearing is expressed as a fraction, the numerator is the distance in feet at which words are repeated by the examinee, and the denominator is 15. Thus 15/15 indicates a normal hearing; 10/15 indicates that the hearing of the examinee is diminished by 1/3 of the normal hearing. Reading should not be over 30 decibels hearing level.

HEARING PROFILE CLASSIFICATIONS:

a. H1 = Auditory acuity of 15/15 or 20/20 in both ears. No organic defects.

b. H2 = Minimum hearing of 15/20 in one ear and not less than 10/20 in the other, with no active or progressive organic disease.

c. H3 = Minimum hearing of 10/20 in one ear and less than 10/20 in the other, with no active or progressive organic disease.

d. H4 = Those with non-acceptable ear defects as enumerated below. (Less than 5/15 wv and 10/20 cv).

NON-ACCEPTABLE EAR DEFECTS (H4):

(1) Hearing less than the minimum requirement

(2) Acute or chronic suppuration, otitis media, chronic catarrhal otitis media.

(3) Acute or chronic mastoiditis.

(4) Severe atresia of the external auditory canal or tumors of this part.

(5) Total loss of an external ear, marked hypertrophy or atrophy, markedly disfiguring deformity of the organ.

(6) Perforation of the tympanic membrane, dry or active.

(7) Infection, untreated or resistant, of external auditory canal, acute or chronic.

EAR DEFECTS THAT CAUSE PHYSICAL UNFITNESS FOR FURTHER POLICE SERVICE (Disability Separation):

a. Infections of the external auditory canal, chronic and severe, resulting in the thickening and excoriation of the canal or chronic secondary infection requiring frequent and prolonged medical treatment or hospitalization. ETaHCD

b. Malfunction of the acoustic nerve: Over 30 decibels hearing level by audiometer in the better ear, or hearing level 5/15 feet or below by whispered voice test, if audiometer is not available. Severe tinnitus complicated by vertigo, otitis media associated with hearing defects below requirements.

c. Mastoiditis, chronic, following mastoidectomy, constant drainage from the mastoid cavity which is resistant to treatment, requiring frequent dispensary care or hospitalization; and hearing level in the better ear of 30 decibels or more by audiometry or a hearing level of 5/15 or below by Whispered Voice Test, if audiometer is not available.

d. Meniere's syndrome: Severe recurring attacks requiring hospitalization of sufficient frequency to interfere with the performance of police duty, or when the condition is not controlled by treatment.

e. Otitis Media: Chronic, suppurative, resistant to treatment associated with impairment of hearing and necessitating frequent hospitalization.

f. Perforation of the tympanic membrane, dry and without any impairment of hearing is not considered to render an individual on active duty physically unfit.

SECTION VIII

MOUTH, NOSE, FAUCES, LARYNX, TRACHEA, ESOPHAGUS, PHARYNX

METHODS OF EXAMINATION:

These organs will be examined by inspection and palpation. X-ray and other studies like CT Scan, ultrasound etc. will be employed if indicated. Reflected light will be employed to examine the nasal cavities before and after the nasal mucosa is shrunk by the application of a vasoconstrictor. The nasopharynx and oropharynx are examined with the aid of laryngeal mirrors. Transillumination of the sinuses is done on individuals with rhinitis.

CONDITIONS WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION (P4):

a. Harelip: Extensive loss of either lip, unsightly mutilations of the lips and nose from wounds, burn or disease.

b. Malformation, partial loss, atrophy or hypertrophy of the tongue, split or bifid tongues, adhesions of the tongue interfering with mastication, speech or swallowing.

c. Malignant tumors and benign tumors of the tongue interfering with its functions.

d. Marked stomatitis, severe ulcerations, and leukoplakia.

e. Extensive ranula, salivary fistula.

f. Perforation, extensive loss of substance and ulceration of the hard and soft palate, extensive adhesions of the soft palate to the pharyngeal walls, paralysis of the soft palate.

g. Loss of nose and nasal deformities interfering with speech and respiration, extensive nasal ulceration.

h. Perforated nasal septum, accompanied by audible whistling sound. Examinees with perforated nasal septum should be cleared from syphilitic infection and yaws before acceptance.

i. Nasal obstruction due to sever septal deviation, nasal polyps, hypertrophic rhinitis, and other causes sufficient to produce mouth breathing.

j. Acute and chronic infection of the nasal accessory sinuses, severe and frequent attacks of hay fever (allergy)

k. Atrophic rhinitis.

l. Pharyngeal deformities and malformations interfering with its functions.

m. Adenoid hypertrophy causing respiratory obstruction or associated with recurrent otitis media. aEcADH

n. Tonsillar hypertrophy sufficient enough to interfere with speech, deglutition and breathing.

o. Chronic laryngitis.

p. Paralysis of the vocal cords, aphonia.

q. Tracheostomy.

r. Diverticulum, ulceration or stricture or pronounced dilatation of the esophagus.

s. Hoarseness of any cause.

CAUSES OF PHYSICAL UNFITNESS FOR FURTHER POLICE SERVICE FOR DEFECTS OF THE MOUTH, NOSE, PHARYNX, ESOPHAGUS, AND LARYNX (Disability Separation):

a. Esophagus:

(1) Achalasia

(2) Esophagitis, severe

(3) Esophageal diverticulum associated with obstruction, regurgitation, and malnutrition.

(4) Esophageal stricture, severe enough to cause frequent hospitalization and malnutrition.

b. Nose and larynx:

(1) Atrophic rhinitis associated with severe crusting, foul, fetid odor and anosmia.

(2) Sinusitis, persistent; chronic sinusitis with polyps, resistant to treatment.

(3) Edema of glottis, chronic recurrent obstructive edema of the glottis, requiring tracheostomy.

(4) Stenosis of the larynx causing respiratory embarrassment upon slight exertion.

(5) Vocal cord paralysis associated with speech defect and inadequate airway.

SECTION IX

DENTAL EXAMINATION

DENTAL PROVISIONS:

The teeth and surrounding tissues will be examined by an officer of the Dental Service. On the Dental Health Record (accompanying the report of Physical Examination) all missing natural teeth will be marked out with an "X" whether or not they are replaced by artificial appliances; all prosthetic dental appliances will be indicated. All conditions falling under Sections 11, 12 and 13 of the said form shall be noted and duly recorded. DaCTcA

a. Definitions:

(1) The term "masticating teeth" includes molar and bicuspid and the term "incisors" include incisor and cuspid teeth.

(2) The term "opposing" means serviceable opposing teeth that can be brought into good functional occlusion by normal movements of the jaw may be considered serviceable opposing.

(3) Vital teeth properly filled with permanent fillings or well-crowned will be considered serviceable, if otherwise acceptable. A single tooth replacement by a standard method of fixed bridgework will be acceptable if the bridge is well constructed.

(4) A tooth will not be considered serviceable if:

a. It fails to enter into serviceable occlusion with an opposing teeth.

b. It has unfilled cavity.

c. It supports a defective filling crown.

d. It is left untreated and/or improperly filled non-serviceable teeth.

e. There is destruction of the supporting tissues of the teeth resulting from gingivitis, periodonticlasis, etc.

f. It is deciduous tooth.

b. Causes for Rejection:

(1) Failure to meet the standard of minimum requirements as in the number of serviceable vital teeth present.

(2) Cleft palate.

(3) Disfiguring spaces between anterior teeth.

(4) Marked irregularity of the teeth.

(5) Marked malocclusion.

(6) Presence of unerupted impacted tooth.

c. Plaster casts will be made of both upper and lower teeth when malocclusions occur. A pencil mark will be drawn across both casts to denote centric occlusion, and the candidate's name will be placed on each cast. X-rays of roots made of all the deciduous teeth showing clearly length of roots and any underlying unerupted tooth, devitalized teeth, as well as, any gross pathology of the supporting tissues of the teeth. Casts and X-rays will be forwarded direct to the Chief, Dental Service Division of the HS, who will be informed of such action.

ADMISSION TO THE PHILIPPINE NATIONAL POLICE ACADEMY:

a. No candidate will be accepted unless he has a minimum of six(6) serviceable vital masticating teeth (bicuspids and molars) above and six(6) below serviceably opposing, and also four (4) serviceable vital incisor teeth (incisors and cuspids) above and four (4) below serviceable opposing. In cases where insufficiency of teeth may be remedied by the eruption of third molars, an X-ray of the third molar region will be taken and forwarded with the Medical Examination Report. If a normal third molar properly positioned and developed is shown, it may be credited with possession of this tooth. In such case, the report of Medical Examination will carry an appropriate remark such as X-ray showing normally developed and erupting teeth.

b. All of the Dental provisions on the above cited will apply.

c. A full mouth X-ray will be taken of all candidates for admission to the PNPA.

ENTRANCE INTO THE PNP — LATERAL ENTRY AND RECRUITMENT:

All of the Dental provisions on the above cited will apply.

ENTRANCE INTO THE AVIATION SECURITY GROUP:

1. All of the Dental provisions on the above cited will apply.

2. Other causes for rejection:

a. Presence of partially filled root canal. ITDHSE

b. Excessively large fillings covering vital teeth.

c. Presence of defective crown fillings.

ENTRANCE INTO THE PNP MARITIME GROUP:

All the requirements for the ground forces will apply.

SECTION X

HEAD AND NECK

EXAMINATION OF THE HEAD FOR DEFECTS:

The head is carefully examined by inspection and palpation. The scalp and cranium are examined for evidence of infection, former injury, depression and deformity. X-ray is required where bony defect is suspected.

CONDITIONS OF THE HEAD WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION (P4):

a. Tinea in any form. IaDTES

b. All tumors which are sufficient size to interfere with the wearing of police headgear.

c. Imperfect ossification of the cranial bones.

d. Extensive cicatrices, adherent scars with tendency to break down and ulcerate.

e. Depressed fractures or loss of bony substance of the skull.

f. Hydrocephalus or microcephalus.

g. Deformities of the skull of any degree associates with evidence of disease of the brain, spinal cord or peripheral skull.

NECK CONDITIONS WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION (P4):

a. Cervical lymph node involvement other than benign in character, including cancer, Hodgkin's disease, leukemia, tuberculosis and syphilis.

b. Adherent disfiguring scars.

c. Thyroid or adenomatous goiter, history of total thyroidectomy.

d. Thyroid gland hypertrophy from any cause.

e. Benign tumors or cysts which are big enough to interfere with the wearing of police uniform and equipment.

f. Congenital cyst of bronchial cleft origin or those developing from the remains of a thyroglossal duct, with or without fistulous tracts.

g. Torticollis, cervical rib.

EXAMINATION OF THE NECK FOR DEFECTS:

The neck will be examined by inspection and palpation. Symmetry and presence of deformity should be well observed. Cervical adenopathy if present, must be carefully evaluated to determine its cause and extent. This is done in conjunction with nose, ear, and hypopharyngeal survey. If the condition is benign in character, it is not a cause for rejection. Acceptance for police service, however, is deferred pending clearance of the adenopathy.

SECTION XI

FACE

CONDITIONS OF THE FACE WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION (P4):

a. Extremely repulsive facial appearance.

b. Extensive deformities like birth marks, hairy moles, scars and mutilations due to injuries or surgical operations, tumors, ulcerations, fistulas, atrophy of a part of the face or lack of facial symmetry.

c. Persistent neuralgia, tic dolouroux, paralysis. SEIDAC

d. Ununited fractures, osseous cysts and extensive exostosis.

e. Chronic arthritis, complete or partial ankylosis, badly reduced or recurrent dislocation of the temporo-mandibular joint.

SECTION XII

SPINE AND PELVIS, INCLUDING SACRO-ILIAC AND LUMBO-SACRAL JOINTS

EXAMINATIONS FOR DISEASES:

The spine will be examined by inspection and palpation. The mobility will be observed while the candidate is performing appropriate exercises. When indicated, X-ray examination will be made.

ACCEPTABLE:

Physical Profile Classification "1" and "2".

(1) Lateral deviation of the spine of 10 degrees or less from the middle line, if the mobility of weight-bearing power is good (P1).

(2) Fracture of the coccyx (L2).

(3) Prominent scapulae not interfering with wearing of the uniform or police equipment (U2).

(4) Complaint of disease of the sacroiliac and lumbo-sacral joints which is unassociated with objective and symptoms (L2).

(5) Fracture of the spine or pelvic bones which has healed without marked deformity and which has not interfered with the following of a useful vocation in civil life (L2).

(6) Spina-bifida occulta, provided it is asymptomatic and can be demonstrated by X-ray examination only (L1).

CONDITIONS WHICH ARE CAUSES OF PHYSICAL UNFITNESS FOR FURTHER POLICE SERVICE (Disability Separation):

a. Abdominopelvic amputation.

b. Acquired anomalies:

(1) Dislocation of hip.

(2) Spondylolisthosis or spondylolysis: More than mild displacement and more than mild symptoms on normal activity.

(3) Others: Associates with muscular spasm, pain on the lower extremities and limitation of motion which have not been amenable to treatment nor improved by assignment of limitations.

c. Coxa Vara: More than moderate pain, deformity and arthritic changes.

d. Disarticulation of hip joint, with sufficient objective findings, following appropriate treatment or reliable measure of such a degree as to interfere with the satisfactory performance of police duty.

e. Kyphosis: More than moderate, interfering with function, or causing bad posture/appearance.

f. Scoliosis: Severe deformity with over ten (10) degrees deviation of the tips of spinous processes from the midline.

SECTION XIII

EXTREMITIES

EXAMINATION FOR DEFECTS:

The extremities will be carefully examined for deformities, old fractures and varicose veins, edema and impaired function from any cause. The feet will be especially examined for pes planus, pes clavus, cubfeet, corns, ingrowing nails, bunions, deformed or missing toes, hyperhydrosis, and bromoidrosis. When any deformity of the feet is found, the strength of the feet should be ascertained by having the candidate hop on the toes of that foot.

ACCEPTABLE:

a. Physical Profile Classification "1" or "2":

(1) Old recent fractures which have healed normally with no resulting impairment of function (U1 or L1).

(2) Webbed fingers and toes, unless severe in degree (U2 or L2).

(3) Entire loss of little finger (left or right) or loss of the distal two phalanges of any one finger except index fingers (U2).

(4) Loss of the terminal phalanx of index finger (left or right(U2)).

(5) Scars and deformities of moderate degree of the hand or hands which do not interfere with normal function (U1).

(6) Flat foot unless accompanied with symptoms of weak foot or when the foot is weak on toes (L2).

(7) Hammertoes which do not interfere with the wearing of police shoes (L2).

(8) Hallux valgus, unless severe (L2).

(9) Absence of one or two of the small toes or one or both feet, if function of the foot is good (L2).

(10) Ingrowing toe nails, unless severe (L2).

(11) History of satisfactory surgical correction of dislocated semilunar cartilage or loose body in the knee, provided that one year has elapsed since operation without recurrence, the knee ligaments are stable in lateral and antero-posterior directions in comparison with the normal knee; there is no weakness or atrophy of the thigh musculature in comparison with the normal side; there is full active motion in flexion and extension; and there are no symptoms of internal derangement (L2). AaHDSI

b. Physical Profile Classification "3"

(1) Total loss of little fingers in addition to total loss of any other one finger (except thumb) of one or both hands.

(2) Webbed fingers or toes, if severe in degree.

(3) Moderate deformities of one or both upper extremities which do not and have not interfered with function to a degree to prevent the individual from following a useful vocation in civil life.

(4) Loss of great toe.

(5) Loss of dorsal flexion of great toe.

(6) Slight claw toes not involving obliteration of the transverse arch and which do not interfere with the wearing of police shoes.

(7) Other defects of the foot which preclude the performance of all police duties but do not prevent the individual from wearing police shoes and which have not prevented him from following a useful vocation in civil life. CADSHI

(8) Moderate deformities of one or both lower extremities which do not and have not interfered with functions to a degree to prevent the individual from following a vocation in civil life.

(9) Adherent scars of the skin and soft tissues of an extremity, if not incapacitating and not likely to breakdown.

(10) Healed disease or injury of wrist or elbow with resulting limitation of motion, if not severe in degree.

CONDITIONS WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION (U4 or P4):

a. Loss of one or both thumbs.

b. Loss of fingers in excess of minimum requirements.

c. Tuberculosis of a bone or joint.

d. Non-united fractures.

e. Unreduced or recurrent dislocation of any of the major points.

f. Disease of any bone or joint healed with resulting functional impairment to a degree that will interfere with police service.

g. Muscle paralysis or contraction or atrophy which disturbs function to a degree which interferes with police service.

h. Extensive, deep or adherent scars that interfere with muscular movements or with the wearing of police equipment or that show a tendency to breakdown and ulcerate.

i. Varicose veins if severe in degree or if associated with edema or with present or previous ulcer of the skin.

j. Rigid flat foot or flat feet when accompanied with symptoms of weak foot or when the foot is weak on test. Pronounced cases of flat foot attended with decided eversion of the foot and marked bulging of the astragals are disqualifying regardless of the presence or absence of subjective symptoms.

k. Obliteration of the transverse arch associated with permanent flexion of the small toes (claw toes).

l. Clubfoot of any degree.

m. Disease of the bone or that ....History of surgical correction of dislocated semi-lunar cartilage of loose body in knee, if at the end of one year post-operative time, the knee ligaments are not stable in the lateral and antero-posterior directions in comparison with the normal knee, the X-ray shows ....weakness or atrophy of the thigh musculature in comparison with the normal side, there is no full active motion the flexion and extension, or there are other symptoms of internal derangement.

n. Deformities due to fracture or other atrophy which interfere with function and weight bearing. ..

o. Sciatica which ...

p. Amputations of extremities in excess of those already cited.

q. Active osteomyelities of any bone, or a substantiated history of osteomyelitis of any of the long bone of ...extremities.

r. Osteoarthritis or rheumatoid arthritis, or chronic arthritis from any cause.

s. Plantar warts on weight bearing areas.

t. Abduction or pronation of the foot.

u. Severe sprains.

v. Benign tumors if sufficiently large to interfere with function.

w. Chronic synovitis, floating cartilage or other internal derangement in joint.

x. Chronic edema of limb.

y. Knock knee or bow legs if severe in degree. cHSIAC

z. Perceptible lameness or limping.

(1) Bunions if painful or sufficiently pronounced to interfere with function.

(2) Ingrowing toe nail if severe.

CONDITIONS WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR PHYSICAL UNFITNESS FOR FURTHER POLICE SERVICE (Disability Separation):

a. Upper extremities:

1. Amputations:

(a) Loss of fingers which precludes ability to clench fist, pick up a pin or needle, or grasp an object.

(b) Any loss greater than specified above to include hand, forearm or arm.

2. Joint ranges of motion which do not equal or exceed the measurements listed below. Range of motion limitations temporarily not meeting these standards because of disease or injury or remediable conditions do not make the individual physically unfit:

(a) Shoulder CDHcaS

Forward elevation to 90 degrees

Abduction to 90 degrees

(b) Elbow

Flexion to 100 degrees

Extension to 60 degrees

(c) Wrist - A total of 15 degrees (Extension-Flexion)

(d) Hand - Pronation to the first quarter of the normal arc

3. Loss of motor and sensory functions secondary to nerve injury on the median, ulnar and radial nerves.

b. Lower Extremities:

1. Amputations:

(a) Loss of toes which precludes the ability to run or walk without a perceptible limp and to engage in fairly strenuous jobs.

(b) Any loss greater than specified above to include foot, leg, or thigh. CDAcIT

2. Feet:

(a) Hallux valgus when moderately severe with exostosis or rigidity and pronounced symptoms, or severe with arthritis changes.

(b) Per planus: Symptomatic, more than moderate with pronation on weight bearing which prevents the wearing of police shoes or when associated with vascular changes.

(c) Talipes Cavus when moderately severe, with moderate discomfort on prolonged standing or walking, metatarsalgia, and which prevents the wearing of police shoes.

3. Knees:

(a) Residual instability following remedial measures, if more than moderate in degree.

(b) If arthritis has supervened.

(c) An individual who refuses necessary treatment will be considered physically unfit only if this condition precludes performance of a police job.

4. Joint ranges of motion which do not equal or exceed the measurement listed below. However, range of motion limitations temporarily not meeting these standards because of disease or remedial conditions do not make the individual physically unfit.

(a) Hip:

Flexion to 90 degrees

Extension to 10 degrees

(b) Knee:

Extension to 10 degrees

Flexion to 90 degrees

5. Shortening of an extremity which exceeds 2 inches.

c. Miscellaneous:

1. Arthritis:

(a) Arthritis due to infection (not including arthritis die to gonococcal infection of tuberculosis);associated with persistent pain and marked loss of function, with objective evidence and documented history of recurrent incapacity for prolonged periods.

(b) Arthritis due to trauma: when surgical treatment fails or is contraindicated and there is functional impairment of the involved joints as to preclude the satisfactory performance or police duty. IEcaHS

(c) Osteoarthritis: Frequent recurrences of the symptoms associated with impairment of function, supported by X-ray evidence and documented history of recurrent incapacity for prolonged periods.

(d) Rheumatoid arthritis or rheumatoid myosities: Substantiated history of frequent recurrences and supported by objective and subjective findings.

2. Bursitis per se, does not render the individual physically unfit.

3. Calcification of cartilages does not per se render the individual physically unfit.

4. Chondromalacia: Severe, manifested by frequent joint effusion, more than moderate interference with function or with severe residuals from surgery.

5. Fractures:

(a) Malunion of fractures: When after appropriate treatment, there is more than moderate malunion with marked deformity and more than moderate loss of functions.

(b) Non-union of fracture: When after an appropriate healing period, non-union of a fracture interferes with adequate function.

(c) Bone fusion defect: When manifested by more than moderate pain and loss of function.

(d) Callus, excessive, following fracture: When it interferes with function and has not responded to treatment and observation for an adequate period of time.

6. Joints:

(a) Arthroplasty: Severe pain, limitation of motion and loss of function.

(b) Bony or fibrous ankylosis: Painful, major joints in unfavorable position and condition, and has not responded to treatment.

(c) Contracture of joints: More than moderate, loss of function is severe and the condition is not remediable by surgery.

(d) Loose foreign bodies within a joint: Complicated by arthritis to such a degree as to preclude favorable results of treatment or not remediable and seriously interfering with functions.

7. Muscles:

(a) Faccid paralysis of one or more muscles: More than moderate loss of function which precludes the satisfactory performance of duty following surgical correction or if not remediable by surgery.

(b) Spastic paralysis of one or more muscles: More than moderate or pronounced loss of functions which precludes the satisfactory performance of police duty.

(c) Progressive muscular dystrophy, confirmed.

8. Myotonia, confirmed.

9. Ostoitis deformans (Paget's disease):Involvement in single or multiple bones with resultant deformities or symptoms severely interfering with function.

10. Ostoitis fibrosa cystica: Per se, does not render the individual physically unfit.

SECTION XIV

CHEST

CONDITIONS WITH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION OR UNFITNESS (P4):

a. Chest expansion less than 1 1/2 inches.

b. Congenital malformation or acquired deformities which result in reducing the chest capacity and diminishing the cardiac or respiratory function to such a degree as to interfere with vigorous physical exertion or that produce disfigurement when the applicant is dressed.

c. Pronounced contraction of the chest wall following pleurisy or empyema.

d. Deformities of the chest or scapulae sufficient to interfere with the carrying of police equipment.

e. Absence or faulty development of the clavicle.

(1) Old fracture of the clavicle where there is much deformity or interference with the carrying of police equipment, ununited fractures, or partial or complete dislocation of either end of the clavicle.

(2) Suppurative periostitis or caries or necrosis or fibs, the sternum, the clavicles, the scapulae or the vertebrae.

f. Old fractures of the rib with faulty union, if interfering with functions.

g. Malignant tumors of the breast or chest wall and benign tumors which interfere with the wearing of a uniform or of police equipment. IDTHcA

h. Unhealed sinuses of the chest wall.

i. Scars of an old operation for empyema unless the examiner is assured that the respiratory function is entirely normal.

THE CONDITIONS LISTED IN THE PRECEDING PARAGRAPHS ARE ALSO FOR DISABILITY SEPARATION EXCEPT CONGENITAL DEFORMITIES, a, d, e and f:

SECTION XV

LUNGS

GENERAL CONSIDERATIONS:

The examination of the lungs will include inspection, palpation, percussion and auscultation of the chest. Careful inquiry will be made into the candidate's medical history, more particularly for any type of acute, subacute or chronic pulmonary disease to be recorded in detail.

a. Frequency, limitation or inequality of the respiratory movements are to be noted.

b. Abnormal physical signs in the lungs, pleura, or mediastinum will be carefully checked to ascertain whether they persist or are only transitory. TESDcA

c. Particular attention will be focused upon the occurrence of the pulmonary rales, which may be elicited only after the expiratory cough. The subject will be instructed to exhale completely with the mouth open, to cough before inhaling and then to inhale deeply but quietly. Rales are heard most often at the beginning of inhalation after such expiratory cough. A small patch of persistent rales at the apex in the intrascapular area or in other parts of the chest may be the only evidence of tuberculosis shown by physical examination.

d. It must be borne in mind that a tuberculosis lesion may not produce abnormal physical signs. In other words, the absence of abnormal signs does not exclude tuberculosis. Therefore, chest X-ray (14 x 17 film) is required for all applicants for police service. The acceptable interpretation for admission is NORMAL CHEST.

ACCEPTABLE:

a. A chest X-ray interpreted by a radiologist as normal chest without clinical findings and without a history of chronic pulmonary disease is classified P1.

b. History of clinical tuberculosis not exceeding the minimal stage, now inactive as demonstrated by chest X-ray six months after is P2. Inactive pulmonary residues, stationary and/or stable for a minimum period of 3 months confirmed by adequate clinical observation and serial chest X-ray are P3.

CONDITIONS WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION (P4):

a. History of clinical tuberculosis or residues of pulmonary tuberculosis, inactive by X-ray, negative sputum exam for AFB culture with normal ESR determination is considered acceptable (P2).

b. Active tuberculosis of any organ including pleurisy with effusion, which is considered of tuberculosis origin, if no other cause can be determined.

c. Acute pleurisy or extensive chronic adhesive pleuritis, empyema.

d. Pneumothorax or hydrothorax.

e. Chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, pulmonary empyema, emphysema, cystic disease of the lungs, pneumoconiosis, or extensive fibrosis of the lungs from any cause.

f. Asthma of any degree.

g. Mycotic disease or residual cavitation therefrom, hydatid cysts, abcess of the lungs.

h. Tumor of the lungs, pleura or mediastinum.

i. Foreign body in the lungs. An individual may be accepted after a foreign body has been removed from the bronchus, provided examination shows recovery without disqualifying sequelae. aSCHIT

CONDITIONS ABOVE THAT ARE ELIGIBLE FOR DISABILITY SEPARATION:

Conditions which are causes for rejection (P4) para b, c, d, e, f (if severe and resulting to hospitalization),g and h and/or with stigmata ascribable to it (e.g. "barrel chest",emphysema, HPN, RAH, RVH, etc).

SECTION XVI

HEART AND VASCULAR SYSTEM

METHODS OF EXAMINATION:

a. General = The examination should include inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation, blood pressure determination, chest-X-ray and electrocardiography. Doppler echocardiography and other more specialized or specific studies may be done if indicated. The applicant or candidate should be examined fully relaxed and comfortable in a well ventilated room with a good light.

b. Inspection = Note especially color of the skin and mucous membranes, eyes of the arcus senilis, visible pulsations of vessels of the neck, enlargement of the thyroid gland, malformation of the chest, pulsations in right and left second interspaces and suprasternal notch, character of precordial impulses, location of point of maximum impulses, pulsations in epigastric and hepatic regions, and, pulsations and retraction in the back. HSaIET

c. Palpate for thrills, bruits over the thyroid gland (goiter),suprasternal notch (aneurysm),apex of the heart (mitral stenosis),and base to the right sternum (aortic stenosis).Use palm of the hand and light pressure in palpating, as hard pressure may obliterate a thrill. Note location and character of the maximum apical impulse. Palpate radials simultaneously noting any disparity.

d. Palpate radial and posterior tibial pulse while auscultating. Note disparity.

e. Auscultation = Auscultate in the second interspace to right sternum (aortic area),second interspace to the left of sternum (pulmonic area),at level of fifth rib, left lower sternum (tricuspid area),and at the apex wherever it may be located (mitral area) or if it cannot be located, then in the left fifth interspace in the midclavicular line. The second sound is most distinct normally at the base.

f. Pulse Rate = Using, discretion and allowing for the age and general appearance of the applicant, have him hop 100 times (or less when in doubt as to his condition) on one foot, clearing the floor by about 1 inch at each hop, or engage in equivalent exercise. The pulse rate before, immediately after exercise and two minutes later. The response may be considered adequate if the rate two minutes after exercise is within ten beats of the initial rates. The response to this test furnishes a rough estimate of a myocardial efficiency. An irregular or unduly rapid pulse after exercise may occur in the presence of vasomotor instability. Observation of the degree of dyspnea, cyanosis, or other symptoms of circulatory failure should be terminated abruptly if untoward symptoms are noted. Auscultation should be repeated immediately after exercise to detect murmurs previously inaudible. In the presence of the pulse rate of 50/minute or under, an electrocardiogram should be made. Bradycardia, not less than 50/minute in the presence of cardiac history and the absence of abnormal physical or electrocardiographic findings should not in itself be considered causes for rejection.

g. Blood Pressure = The blood pressure will be taken with the individual relaxed and comfortable in the sitting, recumbent and standing positions. Due regard must be given to the age of the applicant and to physiological causes such as excitement, recent exercise and digestion. The condition of the arteries, the degree of the accentuation of the aortic second sound, and the relation between the systolic and the diastolic pressure must be considered. No applicant will be rejected as a result of a single reading. When the pressure is considered doubtful, the procedure will be repeated morning and afternoon daily for three (3) consecutive days to enable the examiner to reach a definite conclusion.

h. Cardiovascular Roentgenology = The chest X-ray taken at six (6) feet distance as prescribed elsewhere in these regulations will be examined. The report will include the size and contour of the heart and great vessels. In doubtful cases, "Cardiac Flouroscopy" is advised, anteroposterior, lateral and oblique views with the barium swallow being used as indicated.

i. Electrocardiography = The electrocardiogram is of particular value in the diagnosis of the cardiac arrhythmias, defects in conduction, cardiac hypertrophies, diseases of the coronary arteries and myocardial injuries. The standard 12-lead electrocardiogram is required of all applicants for Lateral Entry and Recruitment and abnormal findings will be considered causes for rejection. This examination is also required for those already in the service, if above 25 years of age, in all types of physical examination, and, when indicated.

j. Echocardiography = The heart can be imaged with reflected ultrasound by the complimentary techniques of M-Mode, cross sectional echoradiography (CSE or 2-D Echo),Doppler technique in its various forms, and contrast echocardiography.

(1) M-Mode Echocardiography = The M-Mode "one dimensional" echocardiogram is actually two dimensions: distance from and on the horizontal axis. The high definition of the recording system and the rapid rate at which pulses of sound are emitted (1000/second) allow cardiac structures and their motion to be defined with great accuracy.

(2) Cross-Sectional Echocardiography = In CSE, or 2-D ECHO, multiple ultrasound beams (3-100),each produced by a single crystal, create a "sector-shaped" cross section of the heart. CSE allows complex structural and functional relationships at estimating chamber volumes especially if there are segmental wall motion abnormalities.

(3) Doppler Echocardiography = This uses the principle that the frequency of a reflected sound wave depends on the velocity of the flowing blood and the angle impact of the ultrasound waves on the blood elements. The difference between the emitted and the measured frequencies is the "Doppler frequency shift".The presence and severity of valvular regurgitation can be estimated by Doppler study. It can also detect intracardiac shunts.

(4) Contact Echocardiography = The injection of almost any liquid, (ex. Blood, saline, or indocyanine green dye),into the intravascular apace, will produce tiny microbubbles that appear as very bright echo-dense could on the echocardiogram. This can be a sensitive method of determining right-to-left shunts such as atrial or verticular septal defects.

k. Nuclear Cardiology = This is the study of cardiac function, myocardial perfusion and blood flow, myocardial metabolism and myocardial damage with radio-pharmaceutical agents, special gamma cameras and computer systems. This can be separated into three categories: (1) Myocardial perfusion imaging (Thallium — 201 imaging and stress testing with Thallium — 201);(2) Myocardial infarct imaging (Technitium — 99mm labeled pyrophosphate and Indium-III labeled antimyoson);and, (3) Radionuclide angiography or radionuclide ventriculography. ScHAIT

 

l. Cardiac Catheterization = This is invasive cardiology and consists in invasively placing catheters within the right and left chambers of the heart from peripheral vessels under fluoroscopic guidance. This can measure intracardiac pressures, blood oxygen content of saturation in different chambers of the heart, and cardiac output. Selective injection of radio-opaque contrast material or dye can be done so that patterns of blood flow can be observed on a radiographic image intensifier, and recorded on still or cine film, this is called angiography. Angiography provides detailed anatomical information about structures like the coronary arteries. Cardiac catheterization is associated with the risks of: (1) damage to arteries and veins. ex. embolization in distal arteries; (2) introduction of infection; and (3) production of arrythmies. Therefore, this procedure should only be used to obtain information which cannot be provided by non-invasive techniques.

m. Exercise Stress Testing (EST) = is a sensitive and informative examination of the cardiovascular response to exercise. It may be referred to as exercise test, stress test, or exercise electrocardiography. It is useful in the detection and quantification of ischemic heart disease (IHD).Exercise electrocardiography may be; (1) Master's Test, either single or two-step or double two-step; (2) Treadmill exercise; or (3) Bicycle exercise. The exercise electrocardiogram by treadmill or bicycle provides non-invasive information about changes in rhythm, conduction, rate and ventricular repolarization as the heart responds to exercise.

n. In addition to the general history elsewhere prescribed in these regulations, special inquiry will be made in doubtful cases as to the use of alcohol, tobacco, and habit-forming drugs; also, as to whether there has been a history in the past of chorea, rheumatic fever, tonsillitis, quinsy, syphilis, gonorrhea, diptheria, tuberculosis, chronic focal infections, general septic infection phlebitis, and other diseases of the blood vessels. SECAHa

MURMURS:

Given a heart of a normal size, responding normally to exercise, a slight to moderate pulmonary systolic murmur, louder in the recumbent position and on expiration and largely or entirely abolished by deep inspiration, is the commonest of all murmurs and is to be considered physiologic or functional. Presence of functional or physiologic murmur will be verified further by echocardiography (Doppler) to detect the presence of mitral valve prolapse and other structural defects of the heart. A faint systolic murmur localized at the aortic area without thrill and followed by a normal second sound may be considered normal, but any aortic systolic murmur of moderate intensity or louder probably indicates disease (for example, aortic dilatation, or stenosis),and demands further study. A loud systolic murmur (usually with thrill),maximal at the left of the sternum in the third and fourth spaces, suggests the probability of congenital septal defect; confirmation of this diagnosis is a cause for rejection. A faint systolic murmur at the apex, varying in intensity with forced respiration, less well heard in the erect position than when recumbent and unattended by cardiac enlargement or other evidence of heart disease, may be considered to be physiological (functional) but a moderate or loud apical systolic murmur which persists in all phases of respiration and body position and is intensified by exercise is evidence of abnormality of the heart. Any diastolic murmur heard over any region of the precordium is an evidence of organic heart disease. The pre-systolic (or diastolic) murmur of mitral stenosis may be confined to a small area at or just within the cardiac apex and heard only in the recumbent position, best in the left lateral decubitus and with the bell stethoscope chest place; it is accentuated by exercise. A slight aortic diastolic murmur, on the other hand, may be heard only along the left external border, with the patient erect and learning slightly forward. Just at the end of force expiration, it is more easily heard with the Bowles' Bell stethoscopic chest piece. Frequently, interpretation must be based on cumulative evidence of murmur of relatively slight deviation from the normal.

CARDIAC ENLARGEMENT:

An apex beat located beyond the left mid-clavicular line or below the sixth rib indicates heart enlargement sufficient to disqualify examinee for police service if this is supported by electrocardiographic findings and X-ray evidence of abnormality of cardiac size or contour. The cause of such enlargement should be sought for, and enlargement should not be made a primary diagnosis unless careful examination fails to reveal a cause.

ACCEPTABLE:

a. Those with normal cardiac size, contour and configuration by cardiovascular roentgenology and electrocardiographic interpretation of within normal limits.

b. Applicants with a heart of a normal size with slight systolic murmur considered physiologic (functional) and without evidence of organic heart pathology and verified by 2-D Echo color Doppler, with negative history of rheumatic fever or state (P1).

c. Sinus arrhythmia = This consists in a quickening of the pulse rate during inspiration and slowing during expiration and is best recognized with the individual recumbent and breathing deeply verified further by negative MST (P1).

d. Those with ECG findings of incomplete RBB with a negative or normal stress test and without any other evidence of organic heart disease (P2)

e. Those already in the active police service with evidence of cardiovascular disease but whose cardiac reserve is adequate for moderate physical and mental activity and had no history of congestive heart failure, negative MST, negative or normal 2D echocardiograph (P3).

f. Other ECG tracing findings which may be considered TWNL in the absence of any other evidence of organic heart disease are:

(1) LVH by voltage criteria — correlated with chest X-ray results

(2) Early repolarization changes

(3) Clockwise and counterclockwise rotations

(4) Non-specific ST-T wave changes

(5) Sinus tachycardia

(6) Sinus bradycardia aSTAcH

CONDITIONS WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION (P4):

a. All valvular diseases of the heart.

b. Cardiac enlargement as noted earlier.

c. A heart rate of 100 or over when persistent after repeated examinations in the recumbent position. (A. M. and P. M. examination for three (3) days are considered adequate for such determination).Further studies may be done to arrive at a definite cause of tachycardia (thyroid studies, etc).

d. A heart rate below 60/minute, if the history, physical examination, or an electrocardiogram shows the presence of AV-block, or if with positive or abnormal stress test or other evidence of heart disease.

e. Hypertension evidenced by a persistent systolic blood pressure of 150 mm Hg or more or a persistent diastolic blood pressure of 95mm Hg or more if the candidate is over 25 years of age, and a persistent systolic blood pressure of 140 mm Hg or more, a persistent diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg or more if less than 25 years of age.

f. Arterial hypotension, when systolic blood pressure is persistently less than 100 mm Hg in the sitting and standing positions.

g. Coronary heart/artery disease, including angina pectoris.

h. Peridarditis, endocarditis, myocarditis, or myocardial insufficiency cardiomyopathy, cardiac tumor or other myocardial diseases.

i. Congenital heart disease or deformity of the heart or great vessels.

j. Aneurysms.

k. Arteriosclerosis disproportionate to age.

l. Arrhythmia, except sinus arrhythmias and occasional extra systole.

m. History of rheumatic fever or chorea.

n. Evidence of vasomotor instability or neurocirculatory asthenia if persistent on examination of not less than three (3) days.

o. Electrocardiographic evidence of paroxysmal tachycardia, auricular fibrillation, auricular flutter, complete right or left bundle branch block, and recent or old coronary occlusion.

p. Orthostatic/arterial hypotension or tachycardia, if marked and persistent or it symptomatic and taken in sitting and standing positions.

q. Inadequate arterial blood supply to any limb.

r. Disease of nay artery. aTcESI

s. Intermittent claudication if confirmed by peripheral vascular tests.

t. Phlebitis and thrombophlebitis, or evidence of repeated thrombophlebitis in the past; varicosities of any extremity unless mild in degree.

ALL CONDITIONS LISTED IN THE PRECEDING PARAGRAPHS ARE ELIGIBLE FOR DISABILITY SEPARATION EXCEPT CONGENITAL CONDITIONS AND THOSE WHO SUCCESSFULLY PASSED THE EXERCISE TEST (MST OF 2-D ECHO-CARDIOGRAM COLOR DOPPLER STUDIES).

SECTION XVII

ABDOMINAL ORGANS AND WALLS

GENERAL CONSIDERATIONS:

a. When necessary to confirm finding, examining physicians may avail themselves of fluoroscopy and roentgenography, EGD, CT Scan, Ultrasound and other more specialized studies.

b. When examining physicians are able to command hospital facilities and the necessary diagnostic apparatus, they will within their discretion, use test meals and chemical and microscopic examination of the stomach contents and stools. TcSHaD

c. Examining physicians will make use of digital rectal examination of defects referable to the region and when necessary, proctoscopy will also be used.

d. Individuals who are found to have parasites or eggs in their stools will have this condition indicated on the report of examination.

e. Moderate impulse produced by cough at inguinal, femoral, or umbilical ring, or at the site of a scar is not necessarily indicative of hernia.

f. In cases of suspected gastric or duodenal ulcer, every effort will be made to obtain a trustworthy history including authentic medical records and if necessary, G.I. series and or EGD (Esophago — gastric duodenoscopy) will be done.

ACCEPTABLE:

a. Physical profile classification "1" and "2":

(1) Small abdominal scars because of surgical operation or accident which show no hernial bulging (P1).

 

(2) Scar pain when found not associated with any disturbance in function of abdominal wall or contained viscera.

(3) Mild splenic enlargement without evidence of other disqualifying disease (P2) as verified by peripheral blood morphology, bone marrow studies, malarial smear for three consecutive determinations.

(4) Small, benign asymptomatic tumor of the abdominal wall if not more than 1 cm diameter (P1).

(5) Internal and external hemorrhoids if mild in degree and without pain or bleeding (p2).

(6) Hernia, small umbilical (patent umbilical ring) (P2).

(7) History of cholecystectomy, provided there are no residual disqualifying sequelae (P2).

b. Physical Profile Classification "3":Hernia, inguinal, which has not descended into scrotum; hernia, fermoral; asymptomatic situs invertus.

CONDITIONS WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION (P4):

a. Hernia, inguinal which has descended into scrotum, recurrent, post-operative, ventral, umbilical, if moderate or large in size.

b. Acute or chronic cholecystitis with or without cholelithiasis.

c. Ulcer of the stomach or duodenum.

d. Authenticated history of true intestinal obstruction of any kind.

e. Authenticated history of surgical operations for gastric or duodenal ulcer.

f. Sinuses of the abdominal wall.

g. Proctitis or stricture or prolapse of the rectum.

h. Symptomatic situs invertus.

i. Enlargement of the spleen associated with leukemia, Hodgkins disease splenic anemia, or other disqualifying disease, moderate or great enlargement of the spleen of any cause.

j. External hemorrhoids, sufficient in size to produce symptoms. Internal hemorrhoids, if large or accompanied with hemorrhage or protruding intermittently or constantly.

k. Megacolon, diverticulitis, ileitis and ulcerative colitis.

l. Splenectomy for any cause.

m. Cirrhosis of the liver.

n. Wounds, injuries, cicatrices of weakness of muscles of the abdominal walls sufficient to interfere with function.

o. History of gastroenterostomy, gastric resection of peptic ulcer, partial resection of the intestines or operation for relief of intestinal adhesions.

p. Blood in the feces unless otherwise shown to be due to unimportant cause. aAcHCT

q. Visceroptosis other than mild.

r. Chronic disease of the liver, gall bladder, pancreas or spleen.

s. Enlargement of the liver.

t. Jaundice or history of recurrent jaundice with positive Hepatitis B Surface antigen test and elevated liver function test [SGOT, SGPT, Alkaline Phosphatase, total bilirubin, B1 and B2].

Test used for Liver diseases:

1. Hepatitis A — If positive HAV, only a self limiting infectious liver disease

2. Hepatitis B — HBs Ag

Hbe Ag

Anti-HBC

Anti-HBc

Anti-HBs Ag

3. Hepatitis C — Anti-HCV

It is important to note that Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C:

a. Have carrier states (normal looking individuals but are infectious); DSAEIT

b. Lead to cirrhosis, liver failure and hepatocarcinoma;

c. Lead to fulminant hepatitis (survival rate is < 10%);

d. Have an expensive treatment modality;

e. May cause possible contamination of PNP blood supply.

u. Positive AIDS (HIV) test.

v. Drug test positive for the most commonly abused drugs/substance (shabu, marijuana, ethanol).

w. Fissure of the anus or proctitis ani.

x. GIT malignancies.

THE CAUSES FOR PHYSICAL UNFITNESS FOR FURTHER POLICE SERVICE (Disability Separation):

a. Achalasia (Cardiospasm) — Dysphagia not controlled by dilation with continuous discomfort, or inability to maintain weight.

b. Amoebic abscess residuals — Persistent abnormal liver function tests after appropriate treatment.

c. Biliary dyskinesia — Frequent abdominal pain not relieved by simple medication or with periodic jaundice.

d. Cirrhosis of the liver — Recurrent jaundice, ascites, or demonstrable esophageal varices or history of bleeding therefrom; secondary to substance abuse (ethanol).

e. Gastritis, severe, chronic hypertrophic grastritis with repeated symphtomatology and hospitalization and confirmed by gastroscopic examination.

f. Hepatitis, chronic, (Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C) when after a reasonable time (6 months),symptoms persist, and there is objective evidence of impairment of liver function.

g. Hernia:

(1) Hiatal hernia: If after operation symptoms are not relieved by simple dietary or medical means, or recurrent bleeding in spite of prescribed treatment, and/or repeated surgical procedures.

(2) If operative repair is contraindicated for medical reasons or when not amenable to surgical repair.

h. Heitis, Regional — Confirmed diagnosis thereof. However, individuals on active duty who are able to maintain weight, have no significant abdominal pain, have no signs of anemia, average no more than three (3) bowel movements per day, have a good understanding of the disease, and who do not require frequent medical attention may be recommended for continuance of active duty (P3).

i. Pancreatitis, chronic — Frequent abdominal pain of severe nature, steatorrhea or disturbance of glucose metabolism requiring insulin.

j. Peritoneal adhesion — Recurrent episodes of intestinal obstruction characterized by abdominal colicky pain, vomiting and intractable constipation requiring frequent admission to the hospital.

k. Proctitis, Chronic — Moderate to severe symptoms of bleeding, painful defecation, tenesmus, and diarrhea with repeated admission to the hospital.

l. Ulcer: peptic, duodenal and gastric — Frequent recurrence of symptoms (pain, vomiting and bleeding) in spite of good medical and surgical management and supported by laboratory, X-ray evidence and EGD.

m. Ulcerative colitis — Confirmed diagnosis thereof. However, an individual on active duty who is able to maintain weight, has no significant pain, has no signs of anemia, average no more than three (3) bowel movements per day, has good understanding of the disease, may be recommended for continuance of active duty (P3).

n. Rectum, stricture with severe symptoms of obstruction characterized by intractable constipation, pain on defecation, difficult bowel movements requiring the regular use of laxative or enema, or requiring repeated hospitalization or surgical treatment.

o. Colectomy, partial — when more than mild symptoms of diarrhea remain or if complicated by colostomy.

p. Colostomy, if permanent.

q. Enterostomy, if permanent.

r. Gastrectomy — Per se, individuals on active duty who have had a partial gastrectomy and are able to exist on a normal diet without symptoms of indigestion or loss of weight may be recommended for continuance of active duty (P3).

s. Gastrostomy, permanent.

t. Gastrodoudenostomy — Per se; However, individuals on active duty who have no complications, without symptoms of indigestion, nausea and vomiting, or weight loss, and who can select their diet from the normal diet may be recommended for continuance of active duty (P3).

u. Ileostomy, permanent.

v. Pancreatectomy.

w. Pancreaticodoudenostomy and Pancreaticogastrostomy — if for malignancy, or if with more than mild symptoms of digestive disturbance or requiring insulin.

x. Pancreaticojejunostomy — if for cancer in the pancreas, or if more than mild symptoms of digestive disturbance and requiring insulin. AScTaD

y. Proctopexy, proctoplasty, proctorrhaphy and proctotomy — if fecal incontinence remains after a appropriate treatment period.

SECTION XVIII

GENITO-URINARY SYSTEM INCLUDING SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DISEASES (STD)

METHODS OF EXAMINATION:

a. Search will be made for evidence of STD and malformation. The glans penis and corona will be exposed and the penis will be examined. Both sides of the scrotum will be palpated as well as the inguinal lymph nodes. Urinalysis including test for albumin, specific gravity, sugar, and a microscopic examination of the sediment will be made. The urine will be voided in the presence of one of the examiners. When indicated, X-ray and other laboratory examinations will be conducted. HDIaST

b. Procedures when albumin or casts are found. The term "Albumin" will not be ordinarily used as a cause for disqualification since the presence of albumin alone does not justify a diagnosis of nephritis. When albumin or casts are found in the urine, the candidate will be retained under observation and daily complete examination of the urine will be made for at least five (5) days, unless the presence of the albumin and casts is associated with the enlargement of the left heart, elevated blood pressure, or other evidence of cardiovascular-renal disease of such a degree that the diagnosis may be made immediately. When albumin is constantly or intermittently present, the underlying pathological condition will, if possible, be determined and stated as the cause for rejection; but if albumin is persistently present, as shown by repeated examinations, it should be regarded as a reason for rejection even if the origin cannot be determined.

c. Procedure when specific gravity is abnormally low: When the specific gravity of the specimen first examined is below 1.010, further observation of the candidate and repeated complete examination are indicated.

d. Procedure when glycosuria is detected: If glucose is found in the urine at the first examination, the result will be correlated with a fasting blood sugar determination. A glucose tolerance test will be made when indicated.

e. Examination for the detection of STD will include inspection of the skin and genitalia for lesions. Further search will be made to exclude late complications of syphilis.

ACCEPTABLE CONDITIONS:

a. Mild albuminuria without casts which is proven by observation and repeated examinations to be temporary in character or orthostatic in type (P2).

b. Absence or removal of one or both testicles from any cause.

c. Varicocele of moderate size (P2).

d. Hydrocel of the tunica vaginalis tests of moderate size (P3).

e. History of unilateral renal calculus with freedom from symptoms, and if the X-ray is negative for calculi (P2).

f. Phimosis (P1).

CONDITIONS WHICH ARE CAUSES FOR REJECTION (P4):

a. Acute chronic nephritis, diabetes mellitus or insipidus or renal glycosuria.

b. Significant amount of blood, pus or albumin in the urine, if persistent.

c. Floating kidney, hydronephrosis, pyonephrosis, pyelitis, tumor of the kidney, absence of one kidney, renal calculi, contracted kidney.

d. Acute and chronic cystitis.

e. Vesical calculi, tumors of the bladder, incontinence or retention of urine, enuresis

f. Hypertrophy or absence of the prostate glands.

g. Urethral stricture or urinary fistula.

h. Epispadias or hypospadias.

i. Hermaphroditism, infantile genital organs.

j. Amputation of the penis.

k. Varicocele or hydrocele, if large or painful or if found in the cord.

l. Sexually transmitted diseases (STD)

m. Pronounced atrophy of or absence of both testicles.

n. Undescended testicle. Absence of one testicle, unless removed on account of malignant disease or tuberculosis (P2) or STD.

o. Chronic orchitis or epididymitis.

ACCEPTABLE STD CONDITIONS:

a. Freedom from active or chronic STD is required for entrance into the police force. SECIcT

b. Gonorrhea, uncomplicated, acute or chronic (P3).

c. Syphilis, except cardiovascular, cerebro-spinal or visceral (P3).

NON-ACCEPTABLE (P4):

a. Stricture of the urethra, moderate or severe.

b. Gonorrheal arthritis.

c. Other complications of gonorrhea, including acute urethritis, seminal versiculitis, and epididymitis.

d. Cardiovascular, cerebro-spinal and visceral syphilis.

e. Lymphogranuloma venereum (active)

f. Confirmed positive serological reaction for syphilis who have had positive serology or other evidence of syphilis.

THE CAUSES FOR PHYSICAL UNFITNESS FOR FURTHER POLICE SERVICE (Disability Separation):

a. Genito-urinary systems:

(1) Cystitis: Per se, does not render the individual physically unfit. However, the residual symptoms or complications may in themselves render the individual physically unfit.

(2) Endometriosis.

(3) Enuresis. (See Section XIX — NEUROLOGICAL AND PSYCHIATRIC DISORDERS).

(4) Incontinence of urine: Due to disease or defect not amenable to treatment and of such severity as to necessitate recurrent absence from duty.

(5) Kidney:

a. Calculus in kidney = Bilateral, symptomatic and not responsive to treatment.

b. Obstructive uropathy resulting; from frequent or recurrent infections or congenital anomaly not responsive to treatment.

c. Cystic kidney (polycystic kidney).

d. Hydronephrosis: More than mild, bilateral and causing continuance of or frequency of symptoms, and not responsive to treatment.

e. Hypoplasia of the Kidney: Symptomatic and associated with elevated blood pressure or frequent infection and not controlled by surgery.

f. Pyelonephritis or pyelitis: Chronic, more than mild which has not responded to medical or surgical treatment.

g. Perirenal abscess, residual, of such a degree which interferes with performance of duty.

h. Pyonephrosis.

i. Nephrosis.

j. Chronic glomerulonephritis.

k. Chronic nephritis.

(6) Menopausal syndrome, either physiologic or artificial with more than mild mental and constitutional symptoms.

(7) Strictures of the urethra or urethra: Severe and not amenable to treatment.

(8) Urethritis, chronic, non-gonorrheal, not responsive to treatment and necessitating frequent absences from duty.

b. Genito-urinary and Gynecological Surgery:

(1) Cystectomy. IESTcD

(2) Cystoplasty: Reconstruction is unsatisfactory if residual urine or infection persists.

SECTION XIX

NEUROLOGICAL AND PSYCHIATRIC DISORDERS

GENERAL:

For the safety, efficiency and economy of the police service it is essential that individuals with neurological and psychiatric disorders be excluded. Not infrequently, an individual suffering from a neuropsychiatric disorder may appear "normal" even to a close observer. The minutest study may be required to establish a diagnosis e.g. convulsive disorders in between seizures or pyschosis (manic depressive) during lucid intervals. Diseases of this type may and frequently do exist in persons who are strong, active and apparently healthy and who volunteer no complaints. A person who has difficulty in making satisfactory adjustment to stresses in life, is likely to break down under the stress of police life and become an encumbrance to the PNP with its additional expenses. Investigation of the medical and social histories not only gives a lead to the presence of any mental abnormalities but also gives insight into the personality make-up of the individual and offers some ideas to his future police value. A history related to convulsions, fainting spells, disturbances of consciousness, routine use of drugs and narcotics, head injuries, education and occupational attainments should be obtained. AIHECa

EXAMINATION FOR NEUROLOGICAL DISORDERS:

The examinee is observed as to his movements, gait, mannerism and behavior as soon as he comes into the examining area. Certain conditions are immediately identified even without talking to or touching an examinee, e.g.,the ataxic or tabetic gait, the hemiplegic gait of post CVD, the palsies of the face and ocular muscles in brain tumors, the tremors of the extremities either at rest or involuntary activities as in Parkinson's Disease or Multiple Sclerosis and the slurred speech of Multiple White Matter Disease. The examinee is asked pertinent questions that may arise during the examination to clarify certain points noted at the time. The examinee is made to strip completely (women may be allowed to wear their bras and panties during examination period) for a good examination. The examinee is directed to walk in a straight line, looking straight ahead and turning about briskly as required. Look for the normal associated movements, abnormalities of gait, deviation to one side or the other. This test is done with eyes opened and closed. He or she is then told to stand up straight in the position of attention except that the toes are brought in together. Asymmetries are looked for especially in the palpebral or oral fissures of the face, deltoid, buttocks and extremities. Swaying to and fro to a slight degree is normally noted especially when eyes are closed in this position; but if it involves movements of the feet to maintain balance, then it is considered pathologically significant (Romberg's positive).The hand grips are tested and compared. The examinee is next made to perform the finger to finger, finger to nose, heel to shin bone tests and the rapidpronation-supination of the upper extremity for motor coordination. A confrontation test is next performed for a rough estimate of the fields of vision. The examinee is next told to get to the examining table and to lie face up. The cranial nerves are next tested by making him identify the smell of tobacco powder through each nostril and by having him follow with his eyes the examiner's finger that is moved around elliptically about 12-16 inches from his face. The pupils are tested for light and accommodation, taking note of its size and shape. The examinee is asked to bite hard for the motor component of the trigeminal, then to expose his teeth without moving, the jaws for facial nerve palsy. The mouth is next opened tongue protruded to determine deviation, tremors, atrophy, weaknesses of movement if any, and taste and sensory capabilities. Movement of the uvula is noted by having the examinee say "AH" loudly. Gag reflex is tested for by touching the oropharynx with an applicator with cotton. The head is next moved rapidly from side to side and forward. Shoulders are lifted voluntarily towards the ears. After testing for the cranial nerves, the sensibilities for pain, temperature, touch, position sense, vibratory sense, (using a turning fork C-256 preferably) and two-points discrimination are next noted. The reflexes come next and the following are deemed adequate: normal cremasteric and corneal for the superficial reflexes; the triceps, biceps, knee jerk and ankle clonus for the deep tendon reflexes; and, Hoffman's, Babinski's, Gordon's, and Chaddock's for the pathological reflexes.

The life history of the examinee is reviewed with him and abnormal findings noted during the examinations are correlated for proper evaluation. The indicated laboratory tests and X-ray examinations should be made. A good neurological examinations is time-consuming for the beginner but one soon develops his own style of examination that is reassuring and satisfying to him.

ACCEPTABLE FOR POLICE SERVICE:

a. Those whose nervous system is deemed to be healthy as shown by a negative history and the absence of objective and subjective findings indicative of disorder or disease of the central, peripheral and autonomic nervous system (S1). cTADCH

b. Individuals with minor paralysis or paresis as those of the poliomyelitis or non-progressive disease of the peripheral nerves which do not interfere with normal locomotion or with police duties, do not call attention to the condition nor have prevented the individual from successfully following a useful vocation in life (S2 or S3).

c. Certain variations from the normal which however are clearly shown to be within physiological limits such as minor tremors of the hand or eyelids during examination (S1 or S2).

NEUROLOGICAL CONDITIONS WHICH ARE GROUNDS FOR REJECTION OR SEPARATION FROM THE POLICE SERVICE (S4),(Disability Separation):

a. Neurosyphilis of any form: general paresis, tabes dorsalis, meningo-vascular syphilis.

b. Degenerative disorders: multiple sclerosis, cerebellar and Freidreich's ataxia, athetoses, Huntington's chorea, muscular atrophies and dystrophies of any type, cerebral arteriosclerosis, etc.

c. Disabling residual infections: meningitis and brain abscess, paralysis agitans, post encephalitic syndrome, Sydenham's chorea.

d. Peripheral nerve disorders: chronic or recurrent neuritis or neuralgia of any intensity which is periodically incapacitating, multiple neuritis, neurofibromatosis that is disfiguring.

e. Residuals of trauma that are incapacitating: residuals of severe cerebral trauma, post-traumatic cerebral syndrome.

f. Paroxysmal convulsive disorders and disturbances of consciousness: grand mal, petit mal, and psychomotor attacks, narcolepsy, cataplexy not controlled by medication. Had been admitted at the neurology ward three times (3x).

 

g. Miscellaneous disorders: recurrent spasmodic torticollis, brain and spinal cord tumors, operated and unoperated cerebrovascular diseases, congenital malformation, including spina bifida if associated with neurological manifestations and meningocele even if uncomplicated, Meniere's disease.

h. Any form of paralysis or paresis which limits locomotion or ability to perform adequately as expected in general police service.

DIAGNOSTIC EXAMINATIONS FOR NEUROLOGICAL DISORDERS:

The common manifestations of neurological disorders are enumerated below. It is not intended to cover all diagnostic criteria nor all the neurological disorders:

a. Syphililis of the Central Nervous System:

(1) General paresis of meningoencephalitic syphilis. Look for unequal, irregular or sluggishly reacting pupils, or Argyll-Robertson's pupils; facial tremor, speech or defect in test phases and in all slurring and distortion of words in conversation; writing defects consisting of omission and distortions of letters, defective memory, discrepancies in relating to facts of life, inability to perform quickly and accurately simple problems of addition and subtraction in mental arithmetic, knee jerk may be normal, overactive or underactive. The mood may be of schizophrenic or neuroasthenic type.

(2) Tabes dorsalis (locomotor ataxia).Look for unequal, sluggishly reacting pupils or Argyll-Robertson pupils; knee jerk, positive Romberg's, ataxic gait especially when the eyes are closed; and anesthetic areas of the skin. The history is usually of slow progression, may show failing sexual power, sphincter disturbances and pains in the legs or back, usual and irregular series of short identical attacks of pain coming at intervals.

(3) Meaningovascular or cerebro-spinal syphilis. The prominent diagnostic signs and symptoms are headaches, history of mood changes or convulsions, varying deep and superficial reflexes, papillary changes, ptosis, ocular palsies and facial paresis. The mental state is normal, dull or apathetic. Motor weakness may occur on one side of the body or in one extremity.

b. Multiple sclerosis: A history of transitory weakness, numbness, ataxia of one or more extremities, transient diplopia, scotomata or bladder disturbances should arouse a suspicion of multiple sclerosis. The presence of optic atrophy, scotomata, definite nystagmus, corneal hyposthesia, absence or irregularity of abnormal reflexes, exaggerated deep reflexes, a Babinski's or similar signs, or ataxia and euphoria are common manifestations.

c. Muscular Dystrophies: There is atrophy of the muscles in some forms, hypertrophy in others, and, in general, decrease or loss of muscle power. In pseudo-hypertrophic forms, some muscles are atrophied; others are hypertrophied. In Myasthenia Gravis, there is rapid fatigue of muscle power appearing first in the facial and extrinsic eye muscles and later becomes generalized. IcHTED

d. Athetoses. Dystonia, Torticollis, Chorea: These names are given to various types of irregular, intermittent, involuntary movements, affecting various parts of the body, often associated with evidence of spastic paralysis; simulation is possible in doubtful cases. Previous medical records should be sought. Even mild manifestations disqualify.

e. Paralysis Agitans: Paralysis is recognized by masked frozen-like facies, unwinking eyes, rigidity of the muscles, stooped posture, sluggishness of movements, tremors, monotonous speech and a typical gait. Even mild manifestations disqualify.

f. Multiple Neuritis: This may associated with dietary deficiencies, infection or introxication. The symptoms depend upon the cause or duration. They consist of pain, various causes of diminution or loss of motor power marked in distal parts of the extremities, sensory diminution or loss, tenderness of the muscles, loss or diminution of reflexes.

g. Chronic Neuralgias: A history of severe, constant or recurrent pain confined to the area of distribution of a single nerve or segment, without objective changes, suggest this diagnosis. Clearly confined entities are sciatica and trigeminal neuralgias. Less common are sub-occipital, brachial and glossopharyngeal neuralgias. Neuralgias of other nerves are extremely rare, and the diagnosis will be made in extreme caution. Neuritis, arthritis, bursitis, sinusitis, and also hysteria, and malingering must be considered in the differential diagnosis. Evidence of previous treatment and the injection of procaine into the nerve presumably affected are important diagnostic aids.

h. Post- traumatic Cerebral syndrome: A history of head injury followed by headache, dizziness, loss of initiative, or change of personality is suggestive, but independent confirmation of such alterations should be thought possible. A dull apathetic expression, slight nystagmus, fine tremors, vasomotor changes, abnormal sweatings are confirmatory evidence. If the syndrome is definite even though mild, the individual should be rejected. The presence of signs indicating a focal lesion, even though mild, is cause for rejection.

i. Paroxysmal Convulsive Disorders: Look for deep scars on tongue, face and head. Since no physical signs are pathognomonic, it is necessary to discover if the individual has had spells of unconsciousness, convulsions, "spells","lapses","dizziness" or fainting. The individual will be disqualified based on a brief history of such spells, or of multiple attacks of loss of consciousness, especially with incontinence or twitchings, or of frequent momentary episodes of being dazed or of uncontrollable outbursts of rage, or irrational conduct or fugue, or unsuccessful treatment treatment with anti-convulsive drugs. Such history will be verified, if practicable, by a confirmatory medical record from a trustworthy source. The electroencephalograph is a great assistance in the diagnosis, particularly in doubtful cases, but will not be used routinely. When an examinee is rejected for epilepsy, a statement will be made by the examining board stating the basis for the diagnosis. When the diagnosis is based wholly on the examinee's stement, in the absence of stigmata, or a verified history, he may attempt to conceal severe defects in order to gain entrance into the police service.

j. Cerebro-vascular Accidents: Characteristically, the onset is acute, with or without unconsciousness. Almost any focal disturbance may result. Evidence of peripheral disease may be inconspicuous. The diagnosis disqualifies.

EXAMINATIONS FOR PSYCHIATRIC DISORDERS:

a. The object of the psychiatric examinations is to procure men who are without psychiatric disorders and to determine the separation or retention of PNP personnel who manifest psychiatric disorders. The diagnosis of psychiatric disorders depends on whether an individual possesses qualities or patterns of behavior of such nature and severity as to have seriously handicapped him in the conduct of his private life and affairs and/or in his interpersonal relationships. The evaluation of such factors in a policeman is accomplished by psychiatric examination and a knowledge of his past history. The latter may be gathered together from various sources, the man himself, his physician, hospital and court records and other social service welfare agencies.

Attention will be given not only to unfavorable or negative data in the history, but also to favorable or positive data since a history of good adjustment in the past may be reasonably accepted as favoring a good adjustment in the police service as well.

b. Mental and personality difficulties are most clearly revealed in the subject's behavior towards those to whom he feel relatively at ease. The most successful approach is often one of straight forward professional inquiry coupled with real respect for the individual's personality and due consideration for his feelings. The routine or habitual use of questions that are emotionally charged, psychologically shocking, in bad taste and are not customarily used in comparable civilian examinations and practices will be avoided.

c. The psychiatric examinations will be made (at the end of the medical investigation) outside of easy hearing of the man. Matters of diagnostic significance are often concealed when the individual feels that he must be impersonal and thereby making him give replies that will not impress listeners with is peculiarity.

Interview will begin with something that is obviously relevant to the immediate situation, Information is elicited as to whether the individual suffers any symptoms of psychiatric nature, and as to whether he has been ill or poorly adjusted in the past and at present. The examiner pays close attention to contents implication of everything said and to any other clues, in a matter-of-fact manner, following up whether it is not self-evidently common place. The accomplished NP Screening Form will be reviewed with the examinee and points of interest or items suggestive of certain disturbance will be clarified. The NP Screening Form is a time saver for the interviewer as well as for the examinee. If it is his first contact with it, he generally answers it without reservation and problem areas are brought to focus.

Despite the handicap of time limitations, the neuro-psychiatrist will carefully avoid unscientific methods which give inadequate or inaccurate data. Thus a neuropsychiatric examination consisting of a few leading and suggestive questions such as "Do you worry","Are you nervous?",or "Do you have headache or stomach trouble?",is inadequate. Positive answers to such questions are not themselves justifiable causes for rejection. Isolated signs such as nail biting, slight tremor, or vasomotor symptoms are not disqualifying.

The probable presence of some types of psychiatric disorders, in particular major psychoses and marked degree of feeblemindedness, may often be suspected by alert observation of the individual's behavior if the examiner knows what to look for and what to regard as significant. In other cases, one would not be able to suspect the presence of any morbid condition without some knowledge of the individual's history.

 

The examiner by this procedure can easily determine the person's mental status by noting his orientation to time, place, person, and current events, recall, insight, judgment, level of intelligence (estimated),neurotic traits and psychotic ideations, if any. These things could be glimpsed during the interview with or without asking direct questions.

THE FOLLOWING TESTS SHALL BE ADMINISTERED AS INDICATED:

Criteria for qualification as per interview and psychological tests:

a. For recruitment:

1. Information sheet with Autoanalysis

2. Intelligence test (Note: IQ will not be reported as IQ points but terms of range ex. Not 86 but 'Dull Normal'

(a) CFT 3 (Culture Fair Test 3) — use Filipino norms

 **Further test instead of evaluation.

(b) SRA VERBAL FORM A

(c) Ravens Progressive Matrices

3. Personality tests:

(a) Sack's Sentence Completion Test (SSCT)

(b) Draw A Person Test (DAPT)

(c) Hand Test (Individualized)

(d) Group hand test using slide projector

 **Further Tests:

a. Bender-Gestalt test

b. Guilford — Zimmerman temperament survey

c. Basic Personality Inventory

d. Jackson Personality Inventory (Revised)

b. For Lateral Entry

1. Information sheet with Autoanalysis

2. IQ tests

(a) SRA FORM B

(b) OLMAT — Otis-Lennon Mental Ability Test

(c) ACER Test of Reasoning Ability

 **Further Tests:

a. Revised Beta 2 (RBE 2)

b. Advance Ravens Progressive Matrices

3. Personality tests

(a) SSCT (Sentence Completion Test)

(b) DAPT (Draw A Person Test) DETACa

(c) AAI (Association Adjustment Inventory)

(d) HT (Hand Test)

(e) BPI (Basic Personality Inventory)

 **Further tests:

a. Guilford Zimmerman Temperamental Survey (GZTS)

b. Jackson Personality Inventory (Revised)

c. Promotions:

For PNCO:

1. Information Sheet with Autoanalysis

2. IQ Test:

 Advance Ravens Progressive Matrices (ARPM)

3. Personality tests:

(a) SIV (Survey of Interpersonal Value)

(b) SPV (Survey of Personal Value)

For PCO:

1. IQ Tests:

(a) OLMAT (Otis-Lennon Mental Ability Test)

(b) SRA FORM A or B

2. Personality tests:

(a) SPV/SIV (Survey of Personal Values/Survey of Interpersonal Values)

(b) LOQ (Leadership Opinion Questionnaire)

d. PE (Annual Physical Examination):

1. Information Sheet with Autoanalysis TCaAHI

2. 16-Personality Factor (PF) — (new version)

e. Reinstatement:

1. PIS (Personal Information Sheet with Autoanalysis)

2. IQ test: CFT (Culture Fair Test)

 **Further test: Ravens Progressive Matrices

3. Personality tests:

(a) SSCT (Sack's Sentence Completion Test)

(b) DAPT (Draw A Person Test)

 **Further test: AAI (Association Adjustment Inventory)

f. Clinical Cases / Patients:

1. Children (non Medico-Legal cases only)

(a) IQ test: WISC-R

(b) Personality test: TAT for children

Adults:

(a) Information sheet ITCHSa

(b) IQ tests: WAIS/ravens Progress Matrices (Depends on the educational Attainment

(c) Personality tests:

SSCI (Sack's Sentence Completion Test)

DAPT (Draw A Person Test)

BGVMT (Bender Gestalt Visual Motor Test)

TAT (Thematic Apperception Test)

Rorschach Inkblot Psychodiagnostic test

g. For schooling:

1. PNCO:

(a) OLMAT (Otis-Kennon Mental Ability Test)

(b) CFT3 (Culture Fair Test)

(c) PIS (Personal Information Sheet) with Autoanalysis

(d) SSCT (Sack's Sentence Completion Test)

(e) DAPT (Draw A Person Test) DIESHT

(f) Guilford Zimmerman Temperamental Survey

(g) Basic Personality Inventory (BPI)

2. PCO:

(a) PIS (Personal Information Sheet) Autoanalysis

(b) OLMAT

(c) SSCT (Sack's Sentence Completion Test)

(d) DAPT (Draw A Person Test)

(e) GZTS (Guilford Zimmerman Temperamental Survey)

(f) Basic Personality Inventory (BPI)

h. Firearms License / PTCFOR

(a) IQ-RPM (Ravens Progressive Matrices)

(b) PIS (Personal Information Sheet) with Autoanalysis

(c) DAPT (Draw A Person Test) caSDCA

(d) Hand test or GZ (Guilford Zimmerman)

(e) SSCT (Sack's Sentence Completion Test)

i. Employment: (PNP and other Government Agencies — Second Priority; secure request from office and for approval.)

(a) IQ — any abstract test which will suit applicants' educational attainment.

(b) PIS (Personal Information Sheet with Autoanalysis)

(c) DAPT (Draw a Person Test)

(d) SSCT (Sack's Sentence Completion Test)

(e) GZ (Guilford Zimmerman)

(f) Basic Personality Inventory (BPI)

j. For Bond

(a) Same as criteria for schooling

Addendum:

1. Applicants undergo 2 interviews:

a. Initial interview — to be conducted by a psychologist

b. Final interview — to be conducted by a psychiatrist/NP screener

2. NP clearance is VALID only for 6 months.

3. For reinstatement purposes, retake is only allowed ONCE and may be requested after a lapse of 3 months.

THE PSYCHIATRIC REPORT SHOULD GIVE DESCRIPTIVE DATA:

The NP Screener should evaluate not only the mental frame of the subject under present environmental conditions but also his capacity to withstand the rigors of police work. Among others, he should assess the subject's foresight and reaction or behavior to future stresses or problems.

For purposes of recording and proper communications, the classification of psychiatric disorders as carried in "DSM 111-R" are used.

ACCEPTABLE FOR POLICE SERVICE:

a. Personalities usually classified as normal, attributes of which are (S1):

(1) Evidence of ability to get along tolerably which family, friends, casual acquaintances and authorities, in school or society, employees and fellow workers.

(2) Conventional toward sexual problem.

(3) Absence of any psychiatric disorder. TSIaAc

(4) Sufficient stability and ability to obtain and keep a job.

b. Stuttering or stammering of a degree which has not prevented the man from successfully following a useful vocation in civilian life (S3).

NON-ACCEPTABLE CONDITIONS FOR POLICE SERVICE

Those found to be suffering from any psychiatric disorder as listed in DSM-IV or those by whose behavior the examiner considers as sex perverts (S4).

CONDITIONS FOR SEPARATION FROM THE POLICE SERVICE EITHER THROUGH MEDICAL CHANNELS (DISABILITY SEPARATION) OR THROUGH ADMINISTRATIVE OR NON-MEDICAL CHANNELS:

a. Separation through medical channels with recommendation for Disability Separation:

(1) Psychotic Disorders whether classified or otherwise not elsewhere classified which manifested themselves during service and necessitated hospitalization for definitive care and management. The practice of returning such persons with a history of psychosis to duty status upon recovery from the psychotic episode shall be discontinued.

(2) Organic mental disorder of whatever cause which renders the individual physically or mentally unfit to render further police service due to obvious and apparent defects as determined by a police neuropsychiatrist.

(3) Psychoneurotic disorders shall be considered as basis for unfitness for further police service if there is persistence and severity of symptoms so as to require hospitalization; if there is lack of improvement of symptoms after six (6) months of continuous hospitalization and/or treatment.

(4) Somatoform disorders manifested by persistent signs and symptoms after maximum benefits of hospitalization or which require repeated hospitalization, sick in quarters status, or a very protected environment.

(5) Adjustment disorders do not render an individual in the police service as unfit for further police service. He may be classified under S3, due to the possibilities of recurrence of similar difficulties under stressful situations.

b. Separation through administrative or non-medical channels (Summary Dismissal Proceedings) Personality disorders are characterized by developmental or pathological trends in the personality structure, with minimal subjective anxiety and little or no sense of distress. In most instances, the disorder is manifested by a lifelong pattern of action or behavior (acting out) rather than by mental or emotional symptoms. Occasionally, Organic diseases of the brain (chronic epidemic encephalitis, head injuries, epilepsy, etc.) will produce pictures resembling character or behavior disorder. Police personnel found to be with personality disorders and psychoactive substance-use disorders shall immediately be recommended as not suited for further police service. STCDaI

Under this category, an individual is recommended for administrative discharge for reasons of unsuitability and unfitness and when it has been determined that the individual police record is characterized by one or more of the following:

(1) Frequent incidents of a discreditable nature with police or civil authorities.

(2) Sexual perversions including but not limited to:

a. Lewd lascivious acts.

b. Indecent exposure

c. Indecent acts with, or assault upon, a child.

d. Other indecent acts or offenses

e. Latent or overt homosexuality

(3) Drug addiction or the characterized use of inhibition of habit-forming narcotic drugs or marijuana, etc.

(4) An established pattern for shirking from and avoiding police duties.

(5) An established pattern showing failure to pay just debts.

(6) Ineptitude: Applicable to those persons best described as inept due to lack of general adaptability, want of readiness or skill, unreadiness or inability to learn.

(7) Apathy (lack of appropriate interest),defective attitude and inability to expend effort constructively which is not due to physical or mental disease which may warrant a disability discharge through medical channels.

DIAGNOSTIC CRITERIA:

For purposes of these regulations, reference to standard textbooks of Clinical Psychiatry shall be availed of at all times for diagnostic purposes. References to be used are "The American Handbook of Psychiatry" by Arriete: "The Practical Clinical Psychiatry" by Noyes; "Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry" by Kaplan and Freedom (3 volumes).DSM-III-R.

THE CRITERIA FOR QUALIFICATIONS AS PER INTERVIEW AND PSYCHOLOGICALS:

a. For reinstatement and Recruitment Applicants:

(1) Effective average intelligence (IQ Range of 90 and above),ability to follow orders, has the capacity to do tasks usually required, does not need more than usual supervision or support.

(2) No psychiatric disorder. IaEScC

 

(3) High morale and motivation, genuine interest in police assignments.

(4) Emotional stability, ability to govern disturbing emotions, steadiness and endurance under pressure, freedom from neurotic tendencies.

(5) Tolerance for stress:

a. Physical danger, gunfire, bombings

b. Physical discomfort: cold, wet, insufficient diet.

c. Strain, hard work, pressure of time, confusion, difficulty, frustration

d. Authority, arbitrary commands, imposed tasks.

e. Neglect, criticism, depreciation, slow promotion.

(6) Social relation: ability to get along well with others, goodwill, team-play, tact, freedom from disturbing prejudices, and freedom from annoying traits.

(7) Security: ability to keep secrets, caution, discretion.

(8) Leadership qualities: reasonably aggressive, self-evoked cooperation, organizing and administering ability, acceptance of responsibilities.

(9) Energy and initiative: high activity level, zest, effort, can start work without being told.

b. For Lateral Entry Applicants:

(1) Effective average intelligence (IQ Range of 100 and above),ability to select strategic goals and the most efficient means of attaining them, quick practical thought, resourcefulness, originality, and good judgment in dealing with people, things and ideas.

(2) No psychiatric disorder.

(3) Emotional stability: ability to govern disturbing emotions, steadiness and endurance under pressure, stress tolerance, freedom from neurotic tendencies. IAEcaH

(4) Leadership capacity: reasonably aggressive, self-evoked cooperation, organizing and administering ability, acceptance of responsibility.

(5) Social relations: ability to get along well with others, goodwill, team-play, tact, freedom from disturbing prejudices, freedom from annoying traits.

(6) Energy and initiative: high activity level, zest, effort, a performer.

(7) Motivation for assignment: genuine interest in police work.

(8) Sense of loyalty.

(9) Security: ability to keep secrets, caution, discretion.

(10) Manner of appearance: pleasing general appearance, acceptable voice and speech, absence of physical disabilities, no unfavorable mannerisms; satisfactory physical qualifications.

c. For Annual PE and Promotion:

(1) No psychiatric disorder, few or transient neurotic symptoms, with no serious disturbance of life adjustment.

(2) High morale/motivation.

(3) History of good emotional adjustment.

(4) No symptoms of disability.

(5) No immature attitudes and behavior.

(6) Absence of symptoms of instability.

(7) In life and work performance, shows good ability and effectiveness.

(8) Good social relations.

(9) Successful in tasks usually required: does not need more than usual supervision or support.

d. For Supply Accountable and Bonded Officers:

(1) Qualifications for Lateral Entry Officers.

(2) Absence of personality disorders.

(3) Absence of vices like gambling, drinking, and use of prohibited drugs, and mistresses.

e. For Possession of Firearms:

(1) At least average intelligence (IQ 90 and above)

(2) No psychiatric disorder

(3) Absence of personality disorder

(4) Good moral character.

(5) Good social relations.

(6) Emotional stability

f. For Foreign and Local Schooling

(1) For Officers at least middle average intelligence (IQ 105 and above).

(2) For non-Officer Rank: at least low average intelligence (IQ 90 and above)

(3) Emotional stability

(4) Good interpersonal relationship must act as an ambassador of goodwill,

g. For Civilian Employment

(1) Effective intelligence relative to the position applied for.

(2) No neuropsychiatric disorder.

(3) No personality disorder. DcAEIS

(4) Good moral character.

(5) Good social relations.

(6) Good work ethics.

h. For Retirement: No neurotic nor psychotic ideations.

i. For Clinical Referrals: The criteria for interview and psychological evaluation will depend upon the nature of the case and the needs of the requesting party.

SECTION XX

MALINGERING

DEFINITION:

The malingerer is one whose complaints of bodily disorders and whose behavior or acts are simulations of some physical or mental disease for the definite purpose of attaining an end which is more satisfactory to him or of seeking an escape from a fear-infested situation. Malingering is encountered in a number of situations but more frequently during the preliminary examinations and early training periods of police service.

The simulation of neuroses and of physical disorders includes a wide variety of problems which must be differentiated from the ordinary neuroses as well as from physical illness. However, simulation is always keeping with the extent of knowledge possessed by the individual regarding the particular disorder form which he pretends to suffer and therefore constantly changes it methods and maladies. A person gifted with histrionic talent and who has a considerable degree of knowledge and skill at his command may be able to simulate a physical or mental condition to such perfection that physicians may sometimes be deceived.

DIFFERENTIATION:

a. For a disorder to be classed as true malingering, it must fulfill three (3) conditions, namely:

(1) No obvious or frank disease or personality disorder is present.

(2) The individual is consciously aware of what he is doing and of the motive responsible for his attitude.

(3) He is fixed in carrying out a purpose towards a preconceived result.

b. When confronted with a case of malingering the observer will try to ascertain how much of what constitute the dual picture is well acted drama and consciously done, and, how much is true in part and more or less unconscious. For practical purposes these reactions may be divided into the following:

(1) Malingering for the purpose of attaining a definite end by simulation of a disease by one who has no past history of similar patterns of reaction but who is making an attempt to escape an emergency (temporary reaction).One feigns his symptoms as a bluff and hopes to get away with it.

(2) Malingering to the extent of exaggerating or capitalizing on conditions of symptoms that are present for the purpose of avoiding service. This includes an enlargement of minor physical ailments or on relatively insignificant diseases, emphasizing mild personality problems or neuroses, and over emphasis on symptoms of fatigue, etc.

(3) Malingering as a manifestation of psychopathic behavior. In intelligence, the psychopathic may be retarded, of average endowment, or superior, but he is incapable of adjustment under ordinary life conditions. The ranks of psychopathic personalities contain many persons having an irresistible tendency to alcoholism, drug addiction sex perversion, criminality, including a number of cranks, extremists, hoboes and queer social misfits.

(4) The psychoneurotic suffering from hysteria who believes in the reality of a disability, which on the surface appears to be a definite simulation, requires special investigation. The confusion of hysteria with true malingering is not infrequently made by those who consider nearly all hysterics as malingerers with symptoms that could be controlled voluntarily. Some of these psychoneurotics unconsciously exaggerate more or less their symptoms to gain their end thus emphasizing the questions of how much is associated with a change in personality.

(5) Malingering or reactions considered to be malingering may appear in those who are basically psychoneurotic, insecure and apprehensive and those with organic brain disorders where there has been a definite change in personality. These reactions, frequently confused with pure malingering, may become worse during investigation or attempted correction.

(6) It is believed that a firm, just and positive leadership is the most effective aid in the prevention of psychiatric disabilities. It is well known that there is a large group of individuals whose ability to adjust to unfavorable stress is strengthened or weakened by the prevailing attitudes of their associates. They are dependent upon the support afforded them by those people in their immediate environment and particularly by such authoritarian figures as their leaders. In all social units, including the PNP, the individual is dependent on some degree upon group pressure for support and his actions are largely determined by group standards of acceptable behavior. If deviations from acceptable standards of behavior are allowed to go unchallenged by those in leadership roles, the individual may conclude that the standards are wrong or that higher authority condones or even approves of such deviation. The loss of this important support obtained from authority may further increase the individual's conflict between his wishes (to escape unfavorable stress) and his misbehavior. When this situation is not dealt with promptly, it is conceivable that the added conflictual, psychological burden placed upon any personality under stress may precipitate a psychoneurotic response.

c. Among these five (5) groups, the typical members are readily distinguished but intermediate and doubtful cases make the differentiation difficult. It should be kept in mind that it is even more difficult for a healthy person to feign disease than it is for a sick person to simulate and accentuate signal symptoms but he is practically always unable to feign the entire picture of the disease he has selected and thus experts can usually detect omissions, discrepancies and contradictions.

FEIGNED MEDICAL DISEASE:

a. The detection and management of malingerers simulating, medical diseases depend upon the absence of positive findings in an individual who present the general characteristics of the malingerer. There is special need for the physical examination to be thorough in this group. Some of the cardiac cases at first regarded as malingerers may later be found to have mitral stenosis or bacterial endocarditis. Similarly, proper tests may show the existence of peptic ulcer in those suspected of feigning digestive abnormalities. The estimation of the reality of rheumatic pain is always a different matter.

b. Tachycardia and thyrotoxicosis may be temporarily induced by ingestion of drugs such as thyroid extracts. Eggs, albumin or sugar, may be added to urine. Canned milk may be utilized to simulate urethral discharge. Cantharides may be taken to cause albuminuria. Digitalis and strephantus may be taken to cause abnormal heart findings. The skin may be irritated by various substances. Cathartics may be taken to bring about purging or to simulate chronic diarrhea. An appearance of hemoptysis may be produced by adding blood, either human or animal, to the sputum. Sometimes, merely water is added. Those who can vomit voluntarily what they swallow use the same means to create the appearance of hematemesis. Similarly, coloring matter may be added to the stools. Mechanical and chemical irritants may be used to cause inflammation on about practically all the body surfaces. Jaundice may be simulated by taking picric acid. Artificial jaundice may be recognized by demonstration or picric acid in the urine. cDTHIE

FEIGNED NERVOUS OR MENTAL ILLNESS:

a. Psychosis = rarely feigned by individuals and usually by a silly, foolish type. In cases of doubt, hospital observation is necessary with verification of the past records. Mental deficiency is frequently feigned, specially by illiterates.

b. Pain and hyperesthesia = The most common of all complaints. History inconsistent, ordinary indications of suffering, absent. Absence of other symptoms usually accompanied by pains complained of. Absence of objective or evidence of localized pain. Note behavior when the registrant believes himself unobserved.

c. Anesthesia = Complaint of anesthesia itself creates a suspicion of malingering as most patients with anesthesia are ignorant of it.

d. Epilepsy = Men who have sustained head injuries may claim fits. These complaints may be in reference to grant mal or petit mal. Petit mal attacks are spoken of as fainting attacks. In grand mal attacks, there is loss of pupil response to light, knee jerks are lost and the Babinski reflexes may be present.

e. Hysteria = Not feigned in itself, but its existence creates confusion as in malingering. The question to be decided is whether the individual is too seriously affected with neurosis to work as a policeman.

f. Stiff Backs = Stiff back is a frequent symptom of hysteria in mobilization among affected men. In cases of this kind, organic disease of the vertebrae can and will be excluded if necessary by X-ray.

FEIGNED SURGICAL CONDITIONS:

a. Included under these are old scars and injuries of the bones, fracture and ortopaedic conditions. Others would cut off their fingers and toes, usually on the right side, to disqualify themselves for service. Some may cut their hands albeit with care for this purpose. Retention of urine may be simulated. Crutches, braces, strappings, or trusses may be used to give the appearance of disability. Wounds are rarely self-inflicted when witnesses are present, consequently it is almost impossible to be certain of malingering in some cases. Substances may be injected under the skin to create abscesses. HECaTD

b. The motivation in self-inflicted wounds is a complicated psychological phenomenon. A type of personality is recognized as "accident prone" as attested by long experience in industrial plants, where 90% of all accidents occur in 16% of the workers. Most self-destructive attempts, both mutilation and suicide, are symptoms of grossly abnormal mental status and many of these mental conditions are not classified as psychotics (insanity).Such accidents are recognized to occur in mentally associated states such as amnesia or fugues. Individuals with psychoneurosis of certain types are known to attempt self-destruction, either by incomplete or successful suicides. In all cases therefore, not only is it essential to exclude the self-inflicted wound as a symptomatic expression of mental illness but it is also necessary to prove intent to evade duty.

SIMULATED DEFECTS OF VISION AND HEARING CASE BE DETERMINED BY TESTS PRESCRIBED IN THE SECTIONS FOR EYES AND EARS

BED WETTING

Bonafide severe enuresis substantiated by a physician's affidavit or other acceptable documentary evidence is cause for unconditional rejection.

GENERAL CONSIDERATIONS:

a. All men suspected of malingering will be subjected immediately to a thorough psychiatric survey, which will include a careful history of their previous behavior and adjustment record and a complete physical, neurological and laboratory evaluation. Observations in the hospital may be required. Suspected malingerers found suffering from definitive psychoneurosis and others in whom signs of mental disorders are detected will be rejected from the police service.

b. Whenever it appears to an examining physician that an individual is endeavoring to escape service by malingering, if otherwise mentally and physically fit, he will definitely not be accepted.

SECTION XXI

EXAMINATION OF FEMALES

EXTREME CARE SHOULD BE TAKEN TO ENSURE PRIVACY DURING EXAMINATIONS. FEMALE PATIENTS/APPLICANTS WILL WEAR A SURGICAL GOWN AFTER DISROBING. EXAMINATION WILL BE CONDUCTED IN THE PRESENCE OF A FEMALE ATTENDANT.

HEIGHT AND WEIGHT STANDARDS (See Section IV, Table I and Section IV, TABLE 3).

THOROUGH BREAST EXAMINATION:

Inspection of the breast should be done first with patient sitting erect with her arms raised. The supraclavicular and the axillae are then palpated with the patient sitting erect and in supine positions. Masses in the breast are best determined by palpation with the flat surface rather than the tips of the fingers. The medial portion is initially examined first with the patient's arms raised. Palpation of the lateral portion of the breast is then performed with the patient's arm at her side. The ducts and nipples should be compressed. Attention should be directed to symmetry of form and mass, whether there is any retraction or dimpling of the skin, retraction or inversion of one or both nipples. CTSAaH

EXAMINATION OF THE ABDOMEN:

Examination of the abdomen is done by inspection, noting the presence of scars, striae, distortion, dilated veins and umbilical eversion. The patient is then asked to raise her head and cough; this will delineate hernia or diastasis recti.

Both groins are inspected and palpated. Enlargement of superficial inguinal nodes may be associated with STD, such as syphilis, granuloma inguinal, chancroid, lymphopathia venereum, and varying degrees of ulceration, so called buboes, may be revealed. The patient should be asked to raise her hear and cough, careful examination should be performed for detection of inguinal and femoral areas.

PELVIC EXAMINATION:

The pelvic examination should be carried out with the patient on an examining table with the legs supported in stir-ups and adequately abducted (lithotomy position).The buttocks should extend just beyond the end of the table. Good light is essential.

The patient is instructed to urinate prior to examination.

Observe the distribution of the pubic hair as well as its color and texture. It is darker and coarser than the remainder of the body hair. In familial hirsutism, hair may extend into abdominal wall toward the umbilicus similar to the male excutcheon. Extensive distribution of hair under the abdomen, if associated with abnormal hair on the face, chest, and other body surfaces, suggests the possibility of disturbed ovarian or adrenal function or both. Labia majora and minora are inspected for ulcerations, discoloration, furuncles, or papillamotous growths. Note for pruritis vulvae suggestive of monilial or trichomonas vaginitis. IcCEDA

The condition of the hymen is assessed. If the hymen is intact or admits one finger with difficulty, rectal examination is done to assess the female reproductive organs. If the hymen is not intact or admits one finger with ease, vaginal speculum is inserted without lubrication and a small amount of vaginal discharge is obtained for gram staining. Cervix is inspected for erosions or masses or polyps. The internal examination is done where abnormalities of the vagina is noted and consistency of the cervix is determined. Normal position of the uterus is anteversion with some anteflexion of the corpus on the cervix. To palpate the uterus, the simplest method is to place the 2 vaginal fingers under the cervix and elevate it and the uterine corpus toward the abdominal wall. The external hand is gently placed on the abdomen with the fingers flat and is moved about from below the umbilicus to the symphysis. Information as to the size, shape and consistency is determined. The adnexal areas are also palpated. The size, shape, consistency, mobility, position and tenderness are noted.

ACCEPTABLE:

a. Females are not expected to have the same strength and stamina as men. They should however at least satisfy the required exercise standard without weights for service support candidates (P3) except female PNPA candidates, who shall satisfy P1 Profile. CaTcSA

b. Vaginitis: cervicitis that is not recurrent or remediable by medications.

NOT-ACCEPTABLE: (P4)

a. Dysmenorrhea which interfere with active PNP service.

b. Metorrahagia.

c. Amenorrhea not due to physiological cause.

d. Growths and masses in the breast, absence of one or both mammary glands, congenital abnormalities in number, shape and position.

e. Absence of any portion of the reproductive organs, masses, cercivities and vaginitis (recurrent),uterine tumors, ovarian new growth.

f. History of previous major operations, in any part of the female reproductive organs.

g. Hernia, congenital or acquired such as inguinal, femoral or umbilical.

h. Hermaphrodism.

CONDITIONS FOR DISABILITY SEPARATION:

a. Cystitis, per se, does not render the individual physically unfit. However, the residual symptoms or complications may in themselves render the individual physically unfit.

b. Endometriosis.

c. Menopausal syndrome, either physiologic or artificial with more than mild mental and constitutional symptoms.

d. Cystectomy or enucleation.

e. Hysterectomy, per se, does not make individual physically unfit, however, residual symptoms or complications may render the individual physically unfit.

f. Oophorectomy when following treatment and convalescent period, there remain more than mild mental or constitutional symptoms.

g. Sexually transmitted diseases:

(1) Aneurysm of the aorta due to syphilis.

(2) Atrophy of the optic nerve due to syphilis.

(3) Symptomatic neurosyphilis in any form.

(4) Complications or residuals of venereal disease of such chronicity or degree that the individual is incapable of performing useful police duty.

h. Auto-Immune Disease Syndrome (AIDS)

SECTION XXII

REPORTS, RECORDS AND RESCISSION

FORMS USED:

a. All reports of medical examination will be based on the provisions of these regulations and will be rendered in the Report of Medical Examination Form.

b. Examination of the civilian employees will be based on the standards prescribed by the Civil Service Commission and reported on the same form prescribed for PNP personnel.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING UP RME FORM:

a. Item 1 — Last name, first name, middle name (complete).

b. Item 2 — Rank

c. Item 3 — Badge/ID Number

d. Item 4 — Home address.

e. Item 5 — Purpose of examination. State whether for recruitment, lateral entry, annual PE, promotion, retirement, discharge, disability separation, report of pregnancy, etc. ISADET

f. Item 6 — Date of exam.

g. Item 7 — Sex

h. Item 8 — Age

i. Item 9 — Years of PNP service

j. Item 10 — Assignment

k. Item 11 — Date and place of birth.

l. Item 12 — Name, relationship and address of next of kin.

m. Item 13 — Examining facility, ex: PNPGH

n. Item 14 — Requesting office.

o. Item 15 — Height (Bare Feet) in cm or meters.

p. Item 16 — Weight (Stripped) in kilograms.

q. Item 17 — Build

r. Item 18 — Color of Hair

s. Item 19 — Color of Eyes CASIEa

t. Item 20 — Head, Face, Neck and Scalp

u. Item 21 — Nose

v. Item 22 — Sinuses

w. Item 23 — Mouth and Throat

x. Item 24 — Ears

y. Item 25 — Whispered Voice Test

z. Item 26 — Eyes

aa. Item 27 — Vision (Distant, Near)

bb. Item 28 — Color Vision

cc. Item 29 — Heart. Include statement on cardiac configuration

dd. Item 30 — Vascular System

ee. Item 31 — Lungs and Chest

ff. Item 32 — Abdomen/Viscera

gg. Item 33 — Anus and Rectum ISTCHE

hh. Item 34 — Endocrine System. Include previous subtotal thyroidectomy and other operations with dates.

ii. Item 35 — GU System. For males, should include statement of examination of prostate.

jj. Item 36 — Upper Extremeties

kk. Item 37 — Lower Extremeties

ll. Item 38 — Spine and musculo-skeletal system

mm. Item 39 — Skin and Lymphatics. Identifying body marks especially moles and pigmented areas.

nn. Item 40 — Pelvic. For females, should include character of menses and parity.

oo. Item 41 — Neurologic

pp. Item 42 — Psychiatric. Should attach an NP Examination Report properly signed by a PNP Psychiatrist/NP Screener.

qq. Item 43 — Vascular System

rr. Item 44 — BP aScIAC

ss. Item 45 — Dental Classification. Should be completely filled up as required by regulations and the official dental form.

tt. Item 46-49 — Should enter final readings of medical specialists in the areas concerned.

uu. Item 50 — Drug Test.

vv. Item 51 — Other tests. Specify kind of tests done.

ww. Item 52 — History/summary of defects noted. If any, enter in the NOTES space provided for at the right side of the form. Describe every abnormality in detail. Enter pertinent item number before each comment. Use back page if necessary.

xx. Item 53 — Recommendation. State whether the PE fulfills the purpose for which undertaken.

yy. Item 54 — Physical Profile Serial classification. Fill the corresponding spaces for the P, U, L, H, E and S.

zz. Item 55 — Overall Physical Evaluation. State Whether FIT or UNFIT for police service.

REPORTS OF MEDICAL-DENTAL BOARDS:

a. All Reports of Medical Examinations (RME) should be signed by the Chairman, the Chief of PE Section and the Dental Officer of the respective HS unit.

b. The Medical-Dental Board, NHQ PNP reviews RME forms for purposes of lateral entry, officers' promotions, schooling abroad, special training/course and Disability Separation.

c. The Medical-Dental Board of the HS unit review, RME forms for purposes of recruitment, annual PE, PNCO promotions, local schooling, discharge, retirement and employment of civilians.

ACTION OF THE DIRECTOR, HEALTH SERVICE:

The Director, Health Service is the reviewing office of the Reports of Medical Examinations. If he concurs with the reports, he affixes his signature to the final PE form. If not, he writes the new classification and recommendation diagonally across the front of the form and signs it. One copy is retained in his office for personnel health records file.

SECTION XXIII

RESCISSION

All memo circulars and directives, inconsistent with this Circular are hereby rescinded. DcAEIS

SECTION XXIV

EFFECTIVITY

This Circular shall take effect immediately after publication.

PANFILO M. LACSON

RESTRICTED